Wipro Interview Questions - Part 1

Interview Questions:

1) Tell me about yourself

2) Favourite Subjects

3) What are the different types of sorts you know

4) Which sorting algorithm is useful in general

5) Given the different data sets,how do i know which sort to use

6) What is difference between C and C++

7) where do u use C and where do u use C++

8) What is polymorphism

9) In DBMS he asked me about SQL queries.

ex. name1 course1

name2 course2

name1 course2

name3 course2

name2 course1



give a SQL query to get the output as follows.

name1 course1

course2

name2 course1

course2

name3 course2

10) What is Waterfall model in SE

11) Iterative model and Rapid Application Development model

12) About my final year project and what stage is my FYP(current situation) according Waterfall model










There was a technical interview followed by the HR interview. Following were the questions asked:

Technical:

1.Tell me about yourself
(A brief description of yourself followed by what your technical skills are)

2.I'll first ask some questions on Software Engineering, followed by those in C and then about your projects.
(Though I didn't mention SE in my resume nor did I mention any project in SE, he was keen to ask questions in SE)

3. What are the different models of SDLC?
4. Differentiate between Spiral and Incremental model?
5. What is the disadvantage of Incremental model? Give an example to explain.
6. What do you mean by the Design phase? What are the tools that can be used in this phase?
7. Coming to C, what is hashing? Why do we use hashing and not arrays? How do we implement a Hash table?
8. What are function pointers? Give the syntax for the same.
9. Why do we use pointers in C at all?
10. You know about structures and union. Why is Union used? Give a real life example in which you'll use union?
11. What is SSL?
12. What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?
13. Explain two of your projects (one should be FYP).

(This round took around 20 minutes)

HR :

The interview was such that no prior preparation could be done. The only preparation required was for questios like why did you skip some companies. If you say you skipped 6 companies for Wipro, you need to convince them why did you do so for a company like Wipro. They too don't expect that you'll give that kind of answer. you should just have a reason behind your selection of companies.

1. Tell me about yourself. She picked up some points in between and asked about them.
2. (We were asked to fill a form containing our details, including strengths and weaknesses) She asked about the weaknesses. Tell how you are trying to overcome that weakness.
3. What were the companies whose tests you took before Wipro?
A. Oracle and Convergys.
4. Why not TCS and Infosys?
5. Why Wipro now? How can it help you in building your career?
6. Are you hopeful in getting into Wipro?
7. My questions end here, do you have any questions to ask?
(I asked about the difference in the nature of training provided two months before joining Wipro and the three months training provided after joining Wipro.)

(This round took around 15 minutes)
The questions in HR were easier as compared to the those asked last year as they involved knowledge about self only. What I judged was that they were looking at communication skills, clarity of goals, strengths and weaknesses.

These are the questions I remember. Though there were some more based on my answers.

********************************************************************

B Vivekanand
------------

There were 2 round in the Interview:Technical and HR
The process is that they would take both Technical and HR
interview into consideration.It's not like u get through Technical and then attend HR interview.

Technical Interview:Madhumita (25 Minutes)
-----------------------------
I said my interests are Operating Systems and DBMS

1.What is a process and what is thread
2.What are the advantages of thread,how does the multithreading look like
3.What is MultiProcessing and Multitasking
4.What is a stack and Queue and its applications
5.Which one out of (stack , Queue) do u use for Infix and Postfix
6.What is indexing,what are the advantages and Disadvantages of it.
7.What is DeNormalization,where does it have it's application
8.What are the Different Objects in DBMS ( i didn't answer it,she said Objects are Views,Sequences ....)
9.What are Self Join and Outer Join,where do u use it.
10.Give a Sql Query which uses Outer Join.(she gave me 2 tables and question on
it)

Finally, She asked do u have anything to ask?
1.I asked that Wipro has Development Centres in Bangalore,Chennai etc...So at each place,do u concentrate on Single Domain like Product design services at one place,IT consulting and services at another place or would u work on differnt Domains?
2.Does it have the Clients which come for the O.S Bug Fixes?


HR interview:Juhi (15 Minutes)
-----------------
Formalities like Excuse me ma'm,may i come in??,Good Evening Ma'm....

1.It was not routine like tell me about urself but asked my family and wat does my father do...

2.Did u attend any interviews

3.I mentioned in my CV that i am glutton,i eat a lot ....So the question is do u eat a lot..

4.So how do u pass time...

5.why u have chosen IIIT and Computer Science?

6.If u r an employee of Wipro and How do u explain to other's about Wipro?
Ans:I said wipro is Technology Service Company. It has development Centres in Bangalore,Chennai,Hyderabad in India and U.S.A,canada,Australia,Japan etc... It's Vision is to become Global Top 10 Technology Service Company by 2010. (Here she asked so u have gone through website and I said yes). It provides customer solutions for wide range of services like Finance,Banking, Product Design Services,Business Process Outsourcing...

7.Why Wipro
Ans:Explained that i would like to join a service company rather than a product company.Also I said that I met some seniors who joined wipro and they told me that "if u want work,enjoyment and Development,then Wipro is the place to be". I said finally that I was inspired by the philosophy of Wipro i.e "Challenge to the Mind and Rewards to the Soul".

8.Tell me in one word that would describe you?
Ans:Commitment. I said that i am committed to my work. I give my best to the job that I take up and I won't give up until I taste the success of it. (I think this is answer which has impressed her).

9.Will u give ur 100% efforts if u join Wipro?
Ans: Yes ma'm definitely. Wipro is giving me a job and already said that I am committed to my work. My work is my job and I will be committed to my job.

Experience:
-----------
What they see in you?
1.Confidence - how best u r selling urself to the company,the confidence that
u have,
2.Content - Wat you are saying is believable or not.Are u saying it in
routine manner or in a different way.
3.Enthusiasm - Do u really like to join the company.R u enthusiastic enough
about the company.
4.Commitment - Do u have the right kind of attitude and committment in work.

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 2

1.Tell me about yourself

(A brief description of yourself followed by what your technical skills are)

2.I'll first ask some questions on Software Engineering, followed by those in C and then about your projects.
(Though I didn't mention SE in my resume nor did I mention any project in SE, he was keen to ask questions in SE)

3. What are the different models of SDLC?
4. Differentiate between Spiral and Incremental model?
5. What is the disadvantage of Incremental model? Give an example to explain.
6. What do you mean by the Design phase? What are the tools that can be used in this phase?
7. Coming to C, what is hashing? Why do we use hashing and not arrays? How do we implement a Hash table?
8. What are function pointers? Give the syntax for the same.
9. Why do we use pointers in C at all?
10. You know about structures and union. Why is Union used? Give a real life example in which you'll use union?
11. What is SSL?
12. What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?
13. Explain two of your projects (one should be FYP).

(This round took around 20 minutes)

HR :

The interview was such that no prior preparation could be done. The only preparation required was for questios like why did you skip some companies. If you say you skipped 6 companies for Wipro, you need to convince them why did you do so for a company like Wipro. They too don't expect that you'll give that kind of answer. you should just have a reason behind your selection of companies.

1. Tell me about yourself. She picked up some points in between and asked about them.
2. (We were asked to fill a form containing our details, including strengths and weaknesses) She asked about the weaknesses. Tell how you are trying to overcome that weakness.
3. What were the companies whose tests you took before Wipro?
A. Oracle and Convergys.
4. Why not TCS and Infosys?
5. Why Wipro now? How can it help you in building your career?
6. Are you hopeful in getting into Wipro?
7. My questions end here, do you have any questions to ask?
(I asked about the difference in the nature of training provided two months before joining Wipro and the three months training provided after joining Wipro.)

(This round took around 15 minutes)
The questions in HR were easier as compared to the those asked last year as they involved knowledge about self only. What I judged was that they were looking at communication skills, clarity of goals, strengths and weaknesses.

These are the questions I remember. Though there were some more based on my answers.

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 3

The test was for 40 mins,45 Questions to be answered.Paper consisted some arrangement of sentences,antonyms,simple puzzles,coding,simple C program,
Questions on Networks,OS and binary trees.

1.Find the analogy SUPRISE:EXCLAMATION
Ans: Dismay:groan

2.Opposite of Protrusion
Ans:

3.Opposite of Harbinger
Ans:Follower

4.Opposite of Spur
Ans:

5.In which layer ROUTING is performed?
Ans:Network Layer

6.which one has no L-Value
a)a[i] b)i c)2 d)*(a+i)
Ans:c

7.Which of the following should be done in Kernel Mode?
Ans:Disabling Interrupts

8.Which one is a page replacement algorithm
options: a)FIFO b)Most Recently Used c)Least Recently Used d)All the above
Ans: d

9.which of the following would be correct if * is to be replaced with + and +
with *,2 with 8 and 8 with 2
Ans:2+8*6 = 22

10.which protocol used for the physical address by supplying IP address of the
node?
options: a)ARP b)RARP c)BOOTP d)DHCP
Ans: a

11.which is false for a binary tree?
Ans:Any node should have two leaf nodes

12.which is true for binary search?
options: a)Greedy Algorithm b)Traversal Scheme c)Divide and Conquer d)...
Ans: c

13.If Delhi is coded as "ccidd" then bombay is coded as
Ans:

14.If a is 2 years older than b,b is 5 years younger than c,c is 4 years
younger than d.c is 9 years old.what is a's age?
Ans:6 years

15.Output of the following program:
main()
{
printf(5+"fascimile");
}
Ans:mile

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 4

The salary is 14,000pm and three months of training with stipend 10,000.The people who prepare for CAT exam sincerely have found the paper easy. There were totally 45 questions to be answered in 40 minutes.I just send the model only.Read IMS or TIME material for this exam.

1.If heart is coded as jokes then what is TABLE.(1 ques)

2.Arrange the sentences given below to make sense.(about 8 ques)

3.A man started walking towards south.After 3km he turned his left and walked 2km.In what dir he is now.(ans:South east).

4.Analogy questions(about 8)-synonym and antonym.
Eg:mealymouthed,Aggravate,Alleviate etc.

5.Find in which part of the sentence is error.(Choices are diff parts of the sentence) (about 8 ques).

6.struct te
{
int i;
float j;
char c[25];
}p;

p={"TIGER"}
printf("%d %f",i,j);

Ans:0 0.000000

7.Two more C questions which are very easy.(follow Test ur C skills).

8.Two questions from Comp Networks(only basics like Layers.)

9.One question from Operating system.(easy for Cse students)

10.No quants at all.So need not prepare. Prepare for Logical reasoning.

Interview:

Half of the students shortlisted were selected. Questions from ur Area of Interest only. For ece and eee it is like stress interview mostly.
The whole process finish in a single day.

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 5

1.When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts

(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.

Ans. (d)


2. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly

(a) 29%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 45%

Ans. (a)


3. Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?

(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time

Ans. (b)


4. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100. It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z. In both processes a charged particle is emitted.Which of the following statements would be true?

(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101

Ans. (b)


5. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals then a/c, b/a, c/b are in

(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of these

Ans. (c)


6. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times.He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.What is the probability of it being a 6?

(a) 3/8
(b) 5/8
(c) 3/4
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)


7. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a

(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these

Ans. (a)


8. Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is

(a) (-1,-4)
(b) (-1,4)
(c) (2,-4)
(d) (-2,-4)

Ans. (a)


9. The mass number of a nucleus is

(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)


10. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on

(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface

Ans. (c)


11. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference

(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source

Ans. (c)


12. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons

(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases

Ans. (c)


13. An electron emits energy

(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits

Ans. (b)


14. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4

Ans. (d)


15. In a balanced chemical equation

(a) Atoms are conserved
(b) Molecules are conserved
(c) Moles are conserved
(d) Reactant and product molecules are preserved

Ans. (a)


16. How many grams of NaOH will react with 0.2 equivalent of HCl?

(a) 0.59
(b) 0.285
(c) 1.18
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)


17. Which of the following is least acidic

(a) Ortho-cresol
(b) Para-cresol
(c) Phenol
(d) Meta-cresol

Ans. (b)


18. In Reimer-Tiemann's reaction, the reaction intermediate is

(a) Carbene
(b) Dichloro carbene
(c) Carbonion
(d) Carbonium ion

Ans. (b)


19. Which of the following is most acidic?

(a) C2H5OH
(b) CH3CHOHCH3
(c) Ethanol
(d) CH3OH

Ans. (b)


20.A catalyst

(a)always slows down the reaction
(b)always starts a rection that would not have ocurred at all otherwise
(c)causes changes in the rate of the reaction
(d)changes the quantities of the products formed

Ans. (c)


21.The rate of the first order reaction depends on the

(a) Concentration of the reactant
(b) Concentration of the product
(c) Time
(d) Temperature

Ans. (d)


22. The most abundant element in the universe is

(a) Hydrogen
(b) Helium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Silicon

Ans. (a)


23. Integrate 3x + 5 / (x3-x2-x+1)

(a) 1/2 log | (x+1)/(x-1) | - 4/(x-1)
(b) log |2+tanx|
(c) -(1+logx)/x
(d) 2 log|(tanx)/(tanx+2)

Ans. A


24. If y=cos-1(cosx + 4sinx)/(17)1/2, then dy/dx is

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)-1
(d) none of these

Ans. (b)


25. If the sum of n terms of two series of A.P are in the ratio 5n+4:9n+6 .find the ratio of their 13th terms

(a) 129/231
(b) 1/2
(c) 23/15
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)


26. If the letters of the word "rachit" are arranged in all possible ways and these words are written out as in a dictionary, what is the rank of the word "rachit".

(a) 485
(b) 480
(c) 478
(d) 481

Ans. (d)


27. Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is

(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 33 1/3%
(d) 30%

Ans. (c)


28. A and B can finish a piece of work in 20 days .B and C in 30 days and C and A in 40 days. In how many days will A alone finish the job

(a) 48
(b) 34 2/7
(c) 44
(d) 45

Ans. (a)


29. How long will a train 100m long traveling at 72kmph take to overtake another train 200m long traveling at 54kmph

(a) 70sec
(b) 1min
(c) 1 min 15 sec
(d) 55 sec

Ans. (b)


30. What is the product of the irrational roots of the equation (2x-1)(2x-3)(2x-5)(2x-7)=9?

(a) 3/2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 3/4

Ans. (a)


31. Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature?

(a) Mass
(b) Momentum
(c) Speed
(d) Kinetic energy

Ans. (d)


32. A solid is completely immersed in liquid. The force exerted by the liquid on the solid will

(a) Increase if it is pushed deeper inside the liquid
(b) Change if its orientation is changed
(c) Decrease if it is taken partially out of the liquid
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)


33. Select the correct statements

(a) A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic
(b) An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
(c) A periodic motion is necessarily oscillatory
(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)


34. An electron is injected into a region of uniform magnetic flux density with the components of velocity parallel to and normal to the flux. What is the path of the electron?

(a) Helix
(b) Parabola
(c) Circle
(d) Rectangle

Ans. (a)


35. A constant voltage is applied between the 2 ends of a uniform metallic wire.Some heat is developed in it. The heat developed is doubled if

(a) both the length and radius of the wire are halved.
(b) both the length and radius of the wire are doubled
(c) the radius of the wire is doubled
(d) the length of the wire is doubled

Ans. (b)


36. If Young's double slit experiment is performed in water

(a) the fringe width will decrease
(b) the fringe width will increase
(c) the fringe width remains unchanged
(d) there will be no fringe

Ans. (a)


37. The shape of a spot of light produced when bright sunshine passes perpendicular through a hole of very small size is

(a) Square, because the hole is a square
(b) Round, because it is an image of the sun
(c) Round with a small penumbra around it
(d) Square with a small penumbra

Ans. (b)

Select the alternative that logically follows from the two given statements.

38.Some forms are books All books are made of paper
(a) Some forms are made of paper
(b) Some forms are not made of paper
(c) No forms are made of paper
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)


39. All toffees are chocolates Some toffees are not good for health
(a) Some chocolates are not good for health
(b) Some toffees are good for health
(c) No toffees are good for health
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (a)

The questions 40-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.
(E) If statements (I) and (II) are identical.


43. If a ground is rectangular, what is its width?

(I) The ratio of its length to its breadth is 7:2
(II) Perimeter of the playground is 396 mts.

Ans. C


44. If the present age of my father is 39 yrs and my present age is x yrs, what is x?

(I) Next year my mother will be four times as old as i would be.
(II) My brother is 2 years older than I and my father is 4 years older than my mother.

Ans. C


45. How many brothers and sisters are there in the family of seven children?

(I) Each boy in the family has as many sisters as brothers
(II) Each of the girl in the family has twice as many brothers as sisters

Ans. D


46. x is not equal to 0, is x + y = 0?

(I) x is the reciprocal of y
(II) x is not equal to 1

Ans. A

Following questions are based on letter's analogy.First pair of letters should have the same relationship as the second pair of letters or vice versa.

47. ? : BGLQ : : YDIN : VAFK

(a) EKNS
(b) DKMT
(c) DLMS
(d) EJOT

Ans. (d)


48. NLO : RPS : : ? : ZXA

(a) VUW
(b) VTR
(c) VTW
(d) TRP

Ans. (c)


49. If "segment" is coded as rffndou, then "ritual" is coded as

(a) shutbm
(b) qjutbk
(c) qhutbk
(d) qhubtk

Ans. (c)


50. If "football" is "cricket" ,"cricket" is "basketball" ,"basketball" is "volleyball","volleyball" is "khokho" and "khokho" is cricket, which is not a ball game?

(a) cricket
(b) football
(c) khokho
(d) basketball

Ans. (a)


51. Which of the following is a recursive set of production

(a) S --> a|A, A --> S
(b) S --> a|A, A --> b
(c) S -->aA, A-->S
(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 6

1. An electron moving in an electromagnetic field moves in a

(a) In a straight path
(b) Along the same plane in the direction of its propagation
(c) Opposite to the original direction of propagation
(d) In a sine wave

Ans. (b)


2. The total work done on the particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy

(a) Always
(b) Only if the forces acting on the body are conservative.
(c) Only if the forces acting on the body are gravitational.
(d) Only if the forces acting on the body are elastic.

Ans. (a)


3. The following unit measure energy:

(a) Kilo-watt hour.
(b) Volt*volt/sec*ohm.
(c) Pascal*foot*foot
(d) (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad

Ans. (a)


4. Astronauts in stable orbits around the earth are in a state of weightlessness because

(a) There is no gravitational force acting on them.
(b) The satellite and the air inside it have an acceleration equal to that of gravitational acceleration there.
(c) The gravitational force of the earth and the sun balance giving null resultant.
(d) There is no atmosphere at the height at which the satellites move.

Ans. (b)


5. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe closed at one end, will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of

(a) 1:1
(b) 1:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2

Ans. (c)


6. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas

(a) Its internal energy increases.
(b) Its internal energy decreases.
(c) Its internal energy does not change.
(d) The work done by the gas is not equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it.

Ans. (c)


7. A parallel plate capaciator is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles

(a) The charge on the capacitor increases.
(b) The voltage across the plates increases.
(c) The capacitance increases.
(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases.

Ans. (b)


8. Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis.A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will

(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin
(b) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) Move to infinity
(d) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion

Ans. (d)


9. A square conducting loop of length Lon a side carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

(a) Independant of L
(b) Proportional to L*L
(c) Inversely proportoinal to L
(d) Directly proportional to L

Ans. (c)


10. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air and then in water will

(a) Increase in water with respect to air
(b) Increase in air with respect to water
(c) Decrease in water with respect to. air
(d) Remain the same

Ans. (a)


11. The maximum kinectic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the surface is dependant on

(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface

Ans. (c)


12. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus of the atom

(a) Has a magnetic dipole moment
(b) Exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it by the nucleus
(c) Does not produce a magnetic induction at the nucleus
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)


13. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:

(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain minimum wavelength
(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength

Ans. (c)


14. The mass number of a nucleus is

(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Always equal to its atomic number
(d) Sometimes more and sometimes equal to its atomic number

Ans. (d)


15. Two successive elements belonging to the first transition series have the same number
of electrons partially filling orbitals. They are

(a) V and Cr
(b) Ti and V
(c) Mn and Cr
(d) Fe and Co

Ans. (c)


16. When n+l has the same value for two or more orbitals,the new electron enters the orbital where

(a) n is maximum
(b) n is minimum
(c) l is maximum
(d) l is minimum

Ans. (b)


17. A balloon filled with ethylene is pricked with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank full of hydrogen at the same pressure. After a while the balloon would have

(a) Shrunk
(b) Enlarged
(c) Completely collapsed
(d) Remain unchanged in size

Ans. (b)


18. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independant of temperature
(b) Tthe square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at a certain temperature
(c) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independant of the mean speed
(d) None

Ans. (b)


19. Which of the following statements represent Raoult's Law

(a) Mole fraction of solvent = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent
(b) Mole fraction of solute = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent
(c) Mole fraction of solute = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution
(d) Mole fraction of solvent = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution

Ans. (a)


20. Elements having the same atomic number and the same atomic mass are known as

(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) None of the above


21.Which is the most acidic amongst

(a) Nitrophenol
(b) O-toulene
(c) Phenol
(d) Cresol


22. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it is

(a) Almost not ionised
(b) Low boiling
(c) Neutral
(d) Readily decomposed

Ans. (a)


23. In a salt bridge, KCl is used because

(a) It is an electrolyte
(b) The transference number of K+ and Cl¯ is nearly the same
(c) It is a good conductor of electricity
(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)


24. A depolarizer used in the dry cell batteries is

(a) KCl
(b) MnO2
(c) KOH
(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)


25. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by aqueous NaOH is best termed as

(a) Electrophylic substitution reaction
(b) Electrophylic addition reaction
(c) Nnucleophylic addition reaction
(d) Nucleophylic substitution reaction

Ans. (d)


26. The hydrocarbon that gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is (where 'º' means a triple bond)

(a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
(b) CH3-CºC-CH3
(c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
(d) CH3-CH2-CºCH

Ans. (d)


27. Which of the following reagents is neither neutral nor basic

(a) Lucas' reagent
(b) Tollen's reagent
(c) Bayer's reagent
(d) Fehling's solution

Ans. (a)


28. The substance which is most easily nitrated

(a) Toluene
(b) Bbenzene
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Chlorobenzene

Ans. (a)


29. Carbylamine reaction is a test for

(a) Primary amine
(b) Secondary amine
(c) Tertiary amine
(d) Quarternary ammonium salt

Ans. (a)


30. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by carbon to obtain metal

(a) ZnO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) PbO

Ans. (b)


31. Which of the following is not an oxide ore?

(a) Cassiterite
(b) Siderite
(c) Pyrolusite
(d) Bauxite

Ans. (b)


32. Which among the following is called philosopher's wool

(a) Cellulose
(b) Calamine
(c) Stellite
(d) Cerussite

Ans. (c)


33. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls

(a) 234
(b) 52
(c) 630
(d) 879

Ans. (d)


34. A and B throw a dice. The probability that A's throw is not greater than B's is

(a) 5/12
(b) 7/12
(c) 11/12
(d) 5/36

Ans. (b)


35. Given two numbers a and b. Let A denote the single AM between these and S denote the sum of n AMs between them. Then S/A depends upon

(a) n
(b) n,a
(c) n,b
(d) n,a,b

Ans. (a)


36. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals,then, a/c, b/a, c/b are in

(a) AP
(b) GP
(c) HP
(d) None of the these

Ans. (c)


In the following questions ~ represents the integral sign-for eg. 1~2[f(x)] means integration of
the function f(x) over the interval 1 to2.

37. Value of -1~2[|2-x²|]dx, ie integration of the function |2-x²| over the interval -1 to 2.

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of the above

Ans. (d)


38. If 0~P[log sinx]dx=k,then the value of 0~P/4[log(1 + tan x)]dx ,where P stands for pi,is

(a) -k/4
(b) k/4
(c) -k/8
(d) k/8

Ans. (c)


39. If a,b,c be in GP and p,q be respectively AM between a,b and b,c then

(a) 2/b=1/p+1/q
(b) 2/b=1/p-1/q
(c) 2=a/p-c/q
(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)


40. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2 .The normality of solution is 0.6.The molarity is

(a) 1.8M
(b) 0.6M
(c) 0.1M
(d) 0.2M

Ans. (d)

The questions 41-46 are based on the following pattern.The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.The correct answer is

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement(II) alone is sufficient but statement(I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.

41. What is John's age?

(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago

Ans. (C)

42. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?

(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C

Ans. (D)

43.Is A=C ? A,B,C are real numbers

(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B

Ans. (C)

44. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?

(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2

Ans. (A)

45.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?

(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow

Ans. (D)


46. What is the value of A if A is an integer?

(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0

Ans. (B)


47. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?

(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km

Ans. (b)


48. X's father's wife's father's granddaughter uncle will be related to X as

(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather

Ans. (c)


49. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31

(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45

Ans. (a)


50. If in a certain code "RANGE" is coded as 12345 and "RANDOM" is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word "MANGO" would be

(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347

Ans. (d)


51. If "PROMPT" is coded as QSPLOS ,then "PLAYER" should be

(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI

Ans. (a)



The questions 52-53 are based on the following data

6 people A,B,C,D,E and F sit around a table for dinner.Since A does not like C, he doesn't sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to sit opposite each other.

52. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbours of B?

(a) D and C
(b) E and C
(c) D and E
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans. (c)


53. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?

(a) E and B
(b) D and A
(c) D and B
(d) either (a) or (c)

Ans.(d)


54. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _

(a) B, F
(b) Y, C
(c) G, I
(d) K, O

Ans.(b)


55. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels 6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?

(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west

Ans. (c)

56. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times.What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14

Ans.(b)


57. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to

(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)


58. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes

(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)


59. The format specifier "-%d" is used for which purpose in C

(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c)Left justifying an intger
(d) Right justifying an intger

Ans. (c)

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 7

Wipro Systems.
--------------
Q1) john weighe twice as much as Marcia. Marcia's weight is 60% of Bob's weight.Dave weighs 50% of Lee's weighs 190% of John's wight. Which of these 5 persons wighs the least?

A) Bob B) Dave C) John D) Lee E) Marcia

Ans) E


Q2) A trip takes 6 hours to compleate. After traveling 1/4 of an hour, 1 3/8hours, and 2 1/3 hours, howmuch time does need to complete the trip?

A) 2 1/12hours
b) 2hours, 2 1/2 minutes
c) 2 hours,5minutes
d) 2 1/8 hours

ANS) B

Q3) It takes 30 days to fill a laboratory dish with bacteria. If the size ofthe bactiria doubles each day, how long did it take for the bactiria to fill one half of dish?

Ans) D ( 29days)

q4) A car wash can wash 8 cars in 18 minutes, At this rate, how many cars can the car wash wash in 3 hours?

ANS) C ( 80)

Q5) If the ratio of the areas of 2 queres is 2:1, then the ratio of the perimeters of the squares is

ANS) C ( sqrt(2):1 )

Q6) There are three types of tickets available for a concert: orchestra , which cost $12 each; balcony, which cost$9 each: and box, which cost $25 each. There were P orchestra tickets , B balcony tickets, and R box tickets sold for the concert. Which of the following expressions gives the percentage of ticket
proceeds due to the sale of orchestra tickets?

Ans) B 100*12P/(12P+9B+25R)

Q7). In a survey of town of Wasco, it was found that 65% of the people surveyed watched the news on television, 40% read newspaper, and 25% read a newspaper and watched the news on television. What percent of the people surveyed neither watched the news on the television nor read a newspaper?.
Ans: (E)20%

Q8). City B is 5 miles east of City A. City C is 10 miles southeast of City B. Which of the following is the closest to the distance from City A to City C?Ans: (D) 14 miles

Q9). If the area of a square increases by 69%, then the side of the square increased by

Ans: (B) 30%

Q10). There are 30 socks in a drawer. 60% of the socks are red and the rest are blue. What is the minimum number of socks that must be taken from the drawer without looking in order to be certain that atleast two blue socks have been chosen?
Ans: (E) 20

-----------------------------------------------------------------
1) problem on stock, face value, brokerage 4 questions see RS Agrawal, edition 1998, 454page, tabulation(ex 5) loan disbusrense by 5 banks
6 questions are intermixed.

2) Averages-7( 124page of RS AGrawal) problem on example 3 problem on age

3) page-291- 16th, simple interest-2.5%

4) problem on calculation of cost price, given market price discount on

ANS) 270
5) frequency of the letter in give strings
--------------------------------------------

reasoning:
----------

1) problem on series non verbel series around -12 questions
2) problem on direction test
3) problem on logical venn diagrams - 10 questions (refer test of reasonong Agrawal page 239)
4) blood relations problem ans) Nephew

5) analogy

bouquet: flower :: chain: link--ans

6) try questions non verbel reasoning 97edition RSAgrawal
Questions: 1,2,4,6,16,14,22,23,24,21

7) pick odd
ex 2,4,6,5,8,10 ans 8
7) Data intepretation years Vs Banks six questions
check in RS Agrawal


TISL PAPER
_________________________________
I know some 25 questions.

The technical comprises of 50 questions on C,Unix and windows.
1.const char *
char * const
What is the differnce between the above tow?.
2.In Unix inter process communication take place using?.
3.What are the files in /etc directory?.
4.About i-node numbers
5.Max relaxable permisssion value with out giving write permission to others?.
6.About ln(linking)
7.A question on until (who |grep mary) do
9.process id for kernell process
10.very first process created by kernell
11.function to repaint a window immediately?.
12.Function entry for DLL?
13.win 3.1 is a ?
14.win 3.1 supports which type of multi tasking?.
15.Message displayed when a window is destroyed?
16.About fork()?
17.About send message and post message?
18.Message to limit the size of window?
19.System call executable binary file intoa process?
20.About GDI object?

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 8

Q1. Two bodies changed from p1v1 to p2v2 state in two ways. The heat supplied is delta Q and work done is delta W Then what is constant in these two processes

(a) delta q
(b) delta w
(c) delta q + delta w
(d) delta q - delta w

Ans. (d)


Q2. _______ have same atomic number and same mass number are

(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isomers
(d) Isobars

Ans. (c)


Q3. When a free electron is placed in a plane of electro magnetic then it moves in

(a) in the direction of the electric field
(b) in the direction of magnetic field
(c) of propagation of wave
(d) of the plane containing magnetic field and propagation direction.


Q4. Name the phenomena in which one proton is jumped from one isomer to another isomer to create two different elements

(a) functional isomerisim
(b) sterio merisim
(c) tauto merisim
(d) penta merisim

Ans. (c)


Q5. In the below compounds which one has 40% C ,6.7% H and 53.3 % O what is its empherical formula

(a) CHO
(b) CH2
(c) C2H2O2
(d) C2H3O2

Ans: (b)


Q6. X rays are coming from X ray tube, the wavelength is _______ a certain wavelength/s

(a) below
(b) above
(c) inbetween
(d) out of

Ans. (c)


Q7. In a triode valve in order to increase the saturation current what has to be done

(a) increase plate voltage
(b) reduce distance between grid and plate
(c) increase cathode potential
(d) reduce grid potential

Ans. (d )


Q8. Seven different toys are distributed among 3 children how many different ways are possible?

(a) 7C3
(b) 7P3
(c) 3 7
(d) 7 3

Ans. (c)


Q9. A, B ans C are three speakers. They have to speak randomly along with another 5 speakers in a function.A has to speak before B and B has to speak before C. What is the probability.

Ans. 1/6


Q10. If dy = (secx + ytanx)dx, Then the curve is

(a) x = ycosx
(b) x = ysinx
(c) x = ytanx
(d) x = ysecx

Ans. (a)


Q11. Two series are 16,21,26.... and 17,21,25..... What is the sum of first hundred common numbers

(a) 101100
(b) 110100
(c) 101110
(d) 110101

Ans. (a)


Q12. There are two sections in a question paper each contain five questions. A students has to answer 6 questions.Maximum no. of questions that can be answered from any section is 4. How many ways he can attempt the paper?

(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 120
(d) 200

Ans. (d)


Q13. a and b are two numbers selected randomly from 1,2,3.... 25 what is the probability of a and b are not equal.

(a) 1/25
(b) 24/25
(c) 13/25
(d) 2/25

Ans. (b)


Q14. The sum of the series 1 + 1(1+1/n) + 3(1+1/n)2 + ..... is equal to?

Ans. n2


Q15. Two circles of different radii intersects each other what is the maximum no of intersections

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

Ans. (c)


Q16. If x= sin-1(t), y = log(1-t2), find d2y/dx2 when t=1/2

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -8/3
(d) -2/3

Ans. (c)


Q17. If x approaches infinity , then (òex dx )/( òe2xdx) is ?

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2

Ans. (a)


Q18. If f(x)=1-cos(1-cosx)/x4 is continuos at f(0) then what is x

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1/4
(d) -1/4

Ans. (c)


Q19. For the word SURITI, if you arrange the letters in dictionary order then what is its rank?

(a) 234
(b) 235
(c) 236
(d) 237

Ans. (c)


Q20. Period of sin ((2t + 3) / 6 pi)

(a) 6pi
(b) 6pi2
(c) 3pi

Ans. (b)


Q21 - Q23. Four questions given on the below data


X,Yand Z are senior engineers. A,B,C,D are junior engineers. Company wants to select 4 enginers. Two will be senior and two will be juniors. The company wants these engineers to work in the most productive way so they respect each person's likes/dislikes.

Y is not friends with A

Z is not friends with C

B is not friends with A

If B is selected then who will be the remaining 4 members ?

If C is selected, Z and ___ cannot be selected?

D is always selected if ___ is selected?


Q24. A speaks truth 70% of the times, B speaks truth 80% of the times.
What is the probability that both are contradicting each other is ?


Q25. ò((2x-3)/((x2 +x+1)2 )dx is ?


Q26. Ram starts from A walking 2 km North and turns right and walks 4 km and turns right again and walks 4 km and turns right again and walks 4 km and meets Radha at Bwalking in the opposite direction to Ram .

a) Which direction does Ram walk after the first turn?
b) Distance between A and B


Q27. If the equation x2 - 3x + a = 0 has the roots (0,1) then value of a is ?


Q28. A and B's temperature are 10°c and 20°c having same surface , then their ratio of rate of emmisions is ?


Q29. An atomic particle exists and has a particlular decay rate . It is in a train . When the train moves, a person observes for whether the decay rate

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) depend on the directions of movement of train


Q30. Which of the following exchanges positive ions

(a).cl-
(b) nh2-
(c) ch2

Ans. (b)


Q31. After execution of CMP, a instruction in Intel 8085 microprocessor

(a) ZF is set and CY is reset.
(b) ZF is set CY is unchanged
(c) ZF is reset, CY is set
(d) ZF is reset , CY is unchanged .

Ans. ZF is set and CY is reset


Q32. The best tool for editing a graphic image is ?


Q33. Network scheme defines
a.)one to one
b.) many to many
c.) one to ,many ?


Q34. A person wants to measures the length of a rod.First he measures with standing ideally then he maeasures by moving parrel to the rod

(a)the length will decrease in second case
(b)length will be same
(c) length will increse in the second case.


Q35. One U-230 nucleus is placed in a train moving by velocity emiting alpha rays .When the train is at rest the distance between nucleus and alpha particle is x . One passenger is observing the particle . When the train is moving what is the distance between particle and nucleus ?

(a) x
(b) x + vt
(c) x - vt

Q36. What is the resulting solution when benzene and toluene are mixed ?


Q37. If the word FADENCOMT equals 345687921 then

What is FEAT

Find representation of 2998


Q38. Given 10 alphabets out of which 5 are to be chosen. How many words can be made with atleast one repetition.


Q39. Arrange by acidic values : phenol, nitrotolouene and o-cresol?


Q40. Find sum of 3 + 5/(1+22) + 7/(1 + 22 + 32) + ......

Ans. 3n/(1 + n)


The following are few sample questions that maybe asked in the software paper.We haven't been able to give the values in certain problems ; only the type of questions have been mentioned.

Q What sorting algos have their best and worst case times equal ?
Ans. O(nlogn) for mergesort and heap sort

Q. What page replacement algo . has minimumn number of page faults ?
Ans. Optimality algorithm

Q. What is the use of virtual base class in c++
Ans. Multiple lines between derived classes.

Q. Find the eccentricity of a given node in a directed graph

Q. Convert the infix to postfix for A-(B+C)*(D/E)
Ans. ABC+DE/*-

Q. What is swapping

Q. Assignment operator targets to
Ans. l-value

Q. A byte addressable computer has memory capacity of 2 power m Kbytes and can perform 2 power n operations an instruction involving three operands and one operator needs maximum of ---bits
Ans. 3m + n

Q. In round robin scheduling, if time quatum is too large then it degenerates to
Ans. FCFS

Q. What is network schema?

Q. Packet Burst is ______

Q. Picard's method uses _______?
Ans. Successive Differentiation.



The following are few sample questions that maybe asked in the hardware paper. We haven't been able to give the values in certain problems ; only the type of questions have been mentioned.

Q. Concentration and restivity is given and conductivity is asked for ?

Q. R , resistance and C, capacitance is given ,find the frequency and Q factor of the crystal ?

Q. Critical frequency and angle theta is given ;.the max useable frequency is to be calculated

Q. Questions on parabolic reflector antenna's and half wave dipole antenna's design

Q. Ramp signal is generated from integrator .Whether it is a low or high pass filter .?

Q. Calculate FM bandwidth given max modulation frequency FM , max freq deviation , df and 8 pairs allowable side band component ?

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 9

REC-Durgapur wipro's question consisted of 15 technical question.



1.area where program can be rewritten.

ans-Eprom.



2.program which can be read &written.

ans-prom.



3.how does the user communicates with the kernel.

ans-API.



4.Two ques. on binary to decimal.

(1)5.125

ans-101.001.



(2)17625



5.question on QUICK SORT



6.Best sorting is same as worst sorting (Ans: HEAP

SORT)



7.Last 8 bits are used for subnet masking for which

classes Ans:CLASS A,B,C



8.What is the tool which connects user and computer -

ANS: INTERPRETER



9.Question on access time and recovery time



10. Question on call by value,call by reference, call

by lvalue and rvalue



11. Question on Binary tree



REMAINING QUESTION NOT IN CACHE......!!



There were 30 questions in verbal section: Questions

arent in order and only the question types have been

mentioned:

i am really very sorry that i couldn't gather all the

questions because i got the message from my friend

very late.



1. Rearranging the jumbled sentences in right order -

5 QUESTIONS each containing around 4 sentences



2. Pick the odd one out - 3 QUESTIONS



3. Passage questions-2



4. Series question -1 : 1,2,6,15,31,_ Ans:56



5. Antonyms (opposites): - 2



6. Analogies : - 2



7. Sentence completion - 2



8. Coding -2 Question .

for Ex-if OCTOBER IS something like 2367589

then TOBOCER IS ..........

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 10

Wipro Infotech Sample Paper

1. Add 79H and 86H and tell the contents of flags

2. Scr is used for _____ ( ac, dc , both )

3. Push pull amplifier is used to remove which harmonics ( even , odd , both )

4. PAM is demodulated using ___ ( low pass filter , high pass filter )

5. 16k memory is needed. How many chips with 12 address buses and 4 data
buses are needed.

6. AM wave is detected using _________ detector

7. Which flip flop is used for shift registers

8. Program counter does what __ (stores a memory address, address of the present instruction)

9. In a bistable multivibrator communication capacitor is used for ______ ( speed up response , ac coupling)

10. Totem pole is what?

11. Time constant for an integrator and differentiator should be ( small , high etc.)

12.TV waves are __ ( sky waves , space waves etc.)

13.Which configuration has highest i/p imp. ( ce , cb , cc )

14. Parabolic antenna with 2degree angle. What is its directivity.

15. Given 10 mhz pe modulation and we got a 100 mhz band.
How many channels can be there.

16. If o/p power is doubled by how much does the sound increase ( 1db,2db,3db

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 11

Q1) john weighe twice as much as Marcia. Marcia's weight is 60% of   Bob's weight.Dave   weighs 50% of Lee's weighs 190% of John's weight. 

 Which of these 5  persons wighs the least?

A) Bob B) Dave C) John D) Lee E) Marcia

Ans) E


Q2) A trip takes 6 hours to compleate. After traveling 1/4 of an hour, 1 3/8hours, and 2 1/3 hours, howmuch time does need to complete  the trip?

A) 2 1/12hours
b) 2hours, 2 1/2 minutes
c) 2 hours,5minutes
d) 2 1/8 hours

ANS) B

Q3) It takes 30 days to fill a laboratory dish with bacteria. If the  size ofthe bactiria doubles each day, how long did it take  for the bactiria to fill one half of dish?

Ans) D ( 29days)

q4) A car wash can wash 8 cars in 18 minutes,  At this rate, how many cars can the car wash wash in 3 hours?

ANS) C ( 80)

Q5) If the ratio of the areas of 2 queres is 2:1, then the ratio  of the perimeters of the squares is

ANS) C ( sqrt(2):1 )

Q6) There are three types of tickets available for a concert: orchestra  , which cost $12 each; balcony, which cost$9 each: and box, which  cost $25 each. There
were P orchestra tickets , B balcony tickets, and R box tickets sold for  the concert.  Which of the following expressions gives the percentage of ticket
proceeds due to the  sale of orchestra tickets?

Ans) B 100*12P/(12P+9B+25R)

  Q7). In a survey of town of Wasco, it was found that 65% of the people   surveyed watched the news on television, 40% read newspaper,  and 25% read a newspaper and watched the news on television.
What percent of the people surveyed neither watched the news on the television nor read a newspaper?.
Ans: (E)20%

Q8). City B is 5 miles east of City A. City C is 10 miles southeast  of City B. Which of the following is the closest to the distance  from City A to City C?
Ans: (D) 14 miles

Q9). If the area of a square increases by 69%, then the side of the  square increased by
Ans: (B) 30%

Q10). There are 30 socks in a drawer. 60% of the socks are red and  the rest are blue. What is the minimum number of socks that  must be taken from the drawer without looking in order to be
certain that atleast two blue socks have been chosen?
Ans: (E) 20

reasoning:
----------

1) problem on series non verbel series around -12 questions
2) problem on direction test
3) problem on logical venn diagrams - 10 questions  refer test of reasonong Agrawal page 239
4) blood relations problem ans) Nephew

5) analogy

bouquet: flower :: chain: link--ans

6) try questions non verbel reasoning 97edition RSAgrawal
Questions: 1,2,4,6,16,14,22,23,24,21

7) pick odd   ex 2,4,6,5,8,10 ans 8
8) Data intepretation years Vs Banks six questions  check in RS Agrawal

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 12

1. Delhi is coded as CCIDD; then Bombay is ----------?
2. A,B are 2 watches

A-exact time

At 8am A& B correct time

B-1/2 min lost every hour

What is the time at 8 pm in B’s watch?

3. analogies

plateau: topography

4. antonym –resistiveness
5. Jumbled words LEZUPK=--------?
6. mercenary :financial

Pecuniary: money

Philosophy :mind

Religion :spirit

Corporal:physical

7. +,* interchanged, 8&2 interchanged. What is 8*2+6?

Ans:22

8. Choose the logically right statements.

Mba’s are in demand

a) R&S in demand

b)R is in demand

c) S is in demand

d)R&S are mba’s

9. ans: kernel mode
10. Analytical reasoning

Floors rooms

1) --------- ----------------

2) --------- ---------------

3) ---------- ---------------

4) --------- ----------------

11. antonyms

spur,harbinger

12. analogies

surprise :exclamation

13.a-2yrs older than b

b-5 yrs younger than c

c=9

d-4 yrs younger than d

what is a’s age?

14. jumbled paragraphs ,logical derivations

15. pgm_count=10;sum=0;

*temp=&count;

*temp=20;

temp=sigma(*temp)=count;

printf(sum,*temp,count);

what is the output?

16.which is not true?

: binary should have 2 nodes

ans : binary search follows divide & conquer

17. main( )

printf(5+”facsimile”)

output?

18. find the odd one out

mundance,bizarre,mystical,obscure

19. routing is done by network layer.

20. sentence completion

he made just a -----------effort.

Choices:meek,timid,…

Wipro Interview Questions - Part 13

Questions on SQL AND SQL*Plus


1. Which of the following statements contains an error?

A. SELECT * FROM emp WHERE empid = 493945;
B. SELECT empid FROM emp WHERE empid= 493945;
C. SELECT empid FROM emp;
D. SELECT empid WHERE empid = 56949 AND lastname = 'SMITH';

2. Which of the following correctly describes how to specify a column alias?

A. Place the alias at the beginning of the statement to describe the table.
B. Place the alias after each column, separated by white space, to describe the column.
C. Place the alias after each column, separated by a comma, to describe the column.
D. Place the alias at the end of the statement to describe the table.

3. The NVL function

A. Assists in the distribution of output across multiple columns.
B. Allows the user to specify alternate output for non-null column values.
C. Allows the user to specify alternate output for null column values.
D. Nullifies the value of the column output.

4. Output from a table called PLAYS with two columns, PLAY_NAME and AUTHOR, is shown below. Which of the following SQL statements
produced it?

PLAY_TABLE
-------------------------------------
"Midsummer Night's Dream", SHAKESPEARE
"Waiting For Godot", BECKETT
"The Glass Menagerie", WILLIAMS

A. SELECT play_name || author FROM plays;
B. SELECT play_name, author FROM plays;
C. SELECT play_name||', ' || author FROM plays;
D. SELECT play_name||', ' || author PLAY_TABLE FROM plays;

5. Issuing the DEFINE_EDITOR="emacs" will produce which outcome?

A. The emacs editor will become the SQL*Plus default text editor.
B. The emacs editor will start running immediately.
C. The emacs editor will no longer be used by SQL*Plus as the default text editor.
D. The emacs editor will be deleted from the system.

6. The user issues the following statement. What will be displayed if the EMPID selected is 60494?

SELECT DECODE(empid,38475, "Terminated",60494, "LOA", "ACTIVE") FROM emp;

A. 60494
B. LOA
C. Terminated
D. ACTIVE

7. SELECT (TO_CHAR(NVL(SQRT(59483), "INVALID")) FROM DUAL is a valid SQL statement.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

8. The appropriate table to use when performing arithmetic calculations on values defined within the SELECT statement (not pulled from a table column) is

A. EMP
B. The table containing the column values
C. DUAL
D. An Oracle-defined table

9. Which of the following is not a group function?

A. avg( )
B. sqrt( )
C. sum( )
D. max( )

10. Once defined, how long will a variable remain so in SQL*Plus?

A. Until the database is shut down
B. Until the instance is shut down
C. Until the statement completes
D. Until the session completes

11. The default character for specifying runtime variables in SELECT statements is

A. Ampersand
B. Ellipses
C. Quotation marks
D. Asterisk


12. A user is setting up a join operation between tables EMP and DEPT. There are some employees in the EMP table that the user wants returned by the query, but the employees are not assigned to departments yet. Which SELECT statement is most appropriate for this user?

A. select e.empid, d.head from emp e, dept d;
B. select e.empid, d.head from emp e, dept d where e.dept# = d.dept#;
C. select e.empid, d.head from emp e, dept d where e.dept# = d.dept# (+);
D. select e.empid, d.head from emp e, dept d where e.dept# (+) = d.dept#;

13. Developer ANJU executes the following statement: CREATE TABLE animals AS SELECT * from MASTER.ANIMALS; What is the effect of this
statement?

A. A table named ANIMALS will be created in the MASTER schema with the same data as the ANIMALS table owned by ANJU.
B. A table named ANJU will be created in the ANIMALS schema with the same data as the ANIMALS table owned by MASTER.
C. A table named ANIMALS will be created in the ANJU schema with the same data as the ANIMALS table owned by MASTER.
D. A table named MASTER will be created in the ANIMALS schema with the same data as the ANJU table owned by ANIMALS.

14. User JANKO would like to insert a row into the EMPLOYEE table, which has three columns: EMPID, LASTNAME, and SALARY. The user would
like to enter data for EMPID 59694, LASTNAME Harris, but no salary. Which statement would work best?

A. INSERT INTO employee VALUES (59694,'HARRIS', NULL);
B. INSERT INTO employee VALUES (59694,'HARRIS');
C. INSERT INTO employee (EMPID, LASTNAME, SALARY) VALUES (59694,'HARRIS');
D. INSERT INTO employee (SELECT 59694 FROM 'HARRIS');

15. Which three of the following are valid database datatypes in Oracle? (Choose three.)

A. CHAR
B. VARCHAR2
C. BOOLEAN
D. NUMBER

16. Omitting the WHERE clause from a DELETE statement has which of the following effects?

A. The delete statement will fail because there are no records to delete.
B. The delete statement will prompt the user to enter criteria for the deletion
C. The delete statement will fail because of syntax error.
D. The delete statement will remove all records from the table.

17. Creating a foreign-key constraint between columns of two tables defined with two different datatypes will produce an error.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

18. Dropping a table has which of the following effects on a nonunique index created for the table?

A. No effect.
B. The index will be dropped.
C. The index will be rendered invalid.
D. The index will contain NULL values.

19. To increase the number of nullable columns for a table,

A. Use the alter table statement.
B. Ensure that all column values are NULL for all rows.
C. First increase the size of adjacent column datatypes, then add the column.
D. Add the column, populate the column, then add the NOT NULL constraint.

20. Which line of the following statement will produce an error?

A. CREATE TABLE goods
B. (good_no NUMBER,
C. good_name VARCHAR2 check(good_name in (SELECT name FROM avail_goods)),
D. CONSTRAINT pk_goods_01
E. PRIMARY KEY (goodno));
F. There are no errors in this statement.

21. MAXVALUE is a valid parameter for sequence creation.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

22. Which of the following lines in the SELECT statement below contain an error?

A. SELECT DECODE(empid, 58385, "INACTIVE", "ACTIVE") empid
B. FROM emp
C. WHERE SUBSTR(lastname,1,1) > TO_NUMBER('S')
D. AND empid > 02000
E. ORDER BY empid DESC, lastname ASC;
F. There are no errors in this statement.

23. Which function below can best be categorized as similar in function to an IF-THEN-ELSE statement?

A. SQRT
B. DECODE
C. NEW_TIME
D. ROWIDTOCHAR

24. Which two of the following orders are used in ORDER BY clauses? (choose two)

A. ABS
B. ASC
C. DESC
D. DISC

25. You query the database with this command

SELECT name FROM employee WHERE name LIKE `_a%';

Which names are displayed?

A. Names starting with "a"
B. Names starting with "a" or "A"
C. Names containing "a" as second character
D. Names containing "a" as any letter except the first


PL/SQL

26. Which of the following statements is true about implicit cursors?

A. Implicit cursors are used for SQL statements that are not named.
B. Developers should use implicit cursors with great care.
C. Implicit cursors are used in cursor for loops to handle data processing.
D. Implicit cursors are no longer a feature in Oracle.

27. Which of the following is not a feature of a cursor FOR loop?

A. Record type declaration.
B. Opening and parsing of SQL statements.
C. Fetches records from cursor.
D. Requires exit condition to be defined.

28. A developer would like to use referential datatype declaration on a variable. The variable name is EMPLOYEE_LASTNAME, and the corresponding table and column is EMPLOYEE, and LNAME, respectively. How would the developer define this variable using referential datatypes?

A. Use employee.lname%type.
B. Use employee.lname%rowtype.
C. Look up datatype for EMPLOYEE column on LASTNAME table and use that.
D. Declare it to be type LONG.

29. Which three of the following are implicit cursor attributes?

A. %found
B. %too_many_rows
C. %notfound
D. %rowcount
E. %rowtype

30. If left out, which of the following would cause an infinite loop to occur in a simple loop?

A. LOOP
B. END LOOP
C. IF-THEN
D. EXIT

31. Which line in the following statement will produce an error?

A. cursor action_cursor is
B. select name, rate, action
C. into action_record
D. from action_table;
E. There are no errors in this statement.

32. The command used to open a CURSOR FOR loop is

A. open
B. fetch
C. parse
D. None, cursor for loops handle cursor opening implicitly.

33. What happens when rows are found using a FETCH statement

A. It causes the cursor to close
B. It causes the cursor to open
C. It loads the current row values into variables
D. It creates the variables to hold the current row values

34. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE find_cpt
(v_movie_id {Argument Mode} NUMBER, v_cost_per_ticket {argument
mode} NUMBER)
IS
BEGIN
IF v_cost_per_ticket > 8.5 THEN
SELECT cost_per_ticket
INTO v_cost_per_ticket
FROM gross_receipt
WHERE movie_id = v_movie_id;
END IF;
END;

Which mode should be used for V_COST_PER_TICKET?

A. IN
B. OUT
C. RETURN
D. IN OUT

35. CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER update_show_gross
{trigger information}
BEGIN
{additional code}
END;

The trigger code should only execute when the column, COST_PER_TICKET, is greater than $3.75. Which trigger information will you add?

A. WHEN (new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75)
B. WHEN (:new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75
C. WHERE (new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75)
D. WHERE (:new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75)

36. What is the maximum number of handlers processed before the PL/SQL block is exited when an exception occurs?

A. Only one
B. All that apply
C. All referenced
D. None

37. For which trigger timing can you reference the NEW and OLD qualifiers?

A. Statement and Row
B. Statement only
C. Row only
D. Oracle Forms trigger

38. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_budget(v_studio_id IN NUMBER)RETURN number IS v_yearly_budget NUMBER;

BEGIN
SELECT yearly_budget
INTO v_yearly_budget
FROM studio
WHERE id = v_studio_id;

RETURN v_yearly_budget;
END;

Which set of statements will successfully invoke this function within SQL*Plus?

A. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER EXECUTE g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
B. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER EXECUTE :g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
C. VARIABLE :g_yearly_budget NUMBER EXECUTE :g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
D. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER :g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);


39.CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE update_theater(v_name IN VARCHAR2, v_theater_id IN NUMBER) IS
BEGIN
UPDATE theater
SET name = v_name
WHERE id = v_theater_id;
END update_theater;

When invoking this procedure, you encounter the error:ORA-00001: Unique constraint(SCOTT.THEATER_NAME_UK) violated.How should you modify the function to handle this error?

A. An user defined exception must be declared and associated with the error code and handled in the EXCEPTION section.
B. Handle the error in EXCEPTION section by referencing the error code directly.
C. Handle the error in the EXCEPTION section by referencing the UNIQUE_ERROR predefined exception.
D. Check for success by checking the value of SQL%FOUND immediately after the UPDATE statement.



40.CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE calculate_budget IS v_budget studio.yearly_budget%TYPE;
BEGIN
v_budget := get_budget(11);
IF v_budget < 30000000 THEN
set_budget(11,30000000);
END IF;
END;

You are about to add an argument to CALCULATE_BUDGET. What effect will this have?

A. The GET_BUDGET function will be marked invalid and must be recompiled before the next execution.
B. The SET_BUDGET function will be marked invalid and must be recompiled before the next execution.
C. Only the CALCULATE_BUDGET procedure needs to be recompiled.

D. All three procedures are marked invalid and must be recompiled.


41. Which procedure can be used to create a customized error message?

A. RAISE_ERROR
B. SQLERRM
C. RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR
D. RAISE_SERVER_ERROR

42. The CHECK_THEATER trigger of the THEATER table has been
disabled. Which command can you issue to enable this trigger?

A. ALTER TRIGGER check_theater ENABLE;
B. ENABLE TRIGGER check_theater;
C. ALTER TABLE check_theater ENABLE check_theater;
D. ENABLE check_theater;

43. Examine this database trigger

CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER prevent_gross_modification
{additional trigger information}
BEGIN
IF TO_CHAR(sysdate,'DY') = `MON' THEN
RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR(-20000,'Gross receipts cannot be ` ||
`deleted on Monday');
END IF;
END;

This trigger must fire before each DELETE of the GROSS_RECEIPT table. It should fire only once for the entire DELETE statement. What additional information must you add?

A. BEFORE DELETE ON gross_receipt
B. AFTER DELETE ON gross_receipt
C. BEFORE (gross_receipt DELETE)
D. FOR EACH ROW DELETED FROM gross_receipt

44. Examine this function

CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION set_budget
(v_studio_id IN NUMBER, v_new_budget IN NUMBER) IS
BEGIN
UPDATE studio
SET yearly_budget = v_new_budget
WHERE id = v_studio_id;

IF SQL%FOUND THEN
RETURN TRUEl;
ELSE
RETURN FALSE;
END IF;

COMMIT;
END;

Which code must be added to successfully compile this function?

A. Add "RETURN;" right before the "IS" keyword.
B. Add "RETURN number" right before the "IS" keyword.
C. Add "RETURN boolean" right after the "IS" keyword.
D. Add "RETURN boolean" right before the "IS" keyword.

45. Under which circumstance must you recompile the package body after recompiling the package specification?

A. Altering the argument list of one of the package constructs
B. Any change made to one of the package constructs
C. Any SQL statement change made to one of the package constructs
D. Removing a local variable from the DECLARE section of one of the package constructs

46. Procedure and Functions are explicitly executed. This is different from a database trigger. When is a database trigger executed?

A. When the transaction is committed
B. During the data manipulation statement
C. When an Oracle supplied package references the trigger
D. During a data manipulation statement and when the transaction is committed

47. Which Oracle supplied package can you use to output values and messages from database triggers, stored procedures and functions within SQL*Plus?

A. DBMS_DISPLAY
B. DBMS_OUTPUT
C. DBMS_LIST
D. DBMS_DESCRIBE

48. What occurs if a procedure or function terminates with failure without being handled?

A. Any DML statements issued by the construct are still pending and can be committed or rolled back.
B. Any DML statements issued by the construct are committed
C. Unless a GOTO statement is used to continue processing within the BEGIN section, the construct terminates.
D. The construct rolls back any DML statements issued and returns the unhandled exception to the calling environment.

49. Examine this code

BEGIN
theater_pck.v_total_seats_sold_overall :=
theater_pck.get_total_for_year;
END;

For this code to be successful, what must be true?

A. Both the V_TOTAL_SEATS_SOLD_OVERALL variable and the GET_TOTAL_FOR_YEAR function must exist only in the body of the
THEATER_PCK package.
B. Only the GET_TOTAL_FOR_YEAR variable must exist in the specification of the THEATER_PCK package.
C. Only the V_TOTAL_SEATS_SOLD_OVERALL variable must exist in the specification of the THEATER_PCK package.
D. Both the V_TOTAL_SEATS_SOLD_OVERALL variable and the GET_TOTAL_FOR_YEAR function must exist in the specification of the
THEATER_PCK package.

50. A stored function must return a value based on conditions that are determined at runtime. Therefore, the SELECT statement cannot be hard-coded and must be created dynamically when the function is executed. Which Oracle supplied package will enable this feature?

A. DBMS_DDL
B. DBMS_DML
C. DBMS_SYN
D. DBMS_SQL