FMS Mock Test

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FMS MOCK TEST
Instructions
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
2. This booklet contains 24 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening
the booklet, verify that all pages are printed properly.
3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with
you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators),
pagers, cellular phones, or any other device. These should be left outside the room.
4. This paper has 150 questions. The total time for the test is 120 minutes.
5. The paper is divided into five sections.
Section-I : 30 Questions
Section-II : 30 Questions
Section-III : 30 Questions
Section-IV : 30Questions
Section-V : 30 Questions
6. Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of
questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by
darkening the appropriate ovals.
7. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.
8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.
9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be
disqualified.
10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, "You
may leave now." The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets
and answer sheets from everyone in the room.
ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/SEEKING/RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING
WILL BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.
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Section – I
Direction for questions 1 to 30: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
The scene is fairly familiar at first. The lights dim, and an eerie squeal of flutes silences the rustle and buzz of
the audience. The first actor enters, attired in full Kabuki dress and pandemonium erupts in the crowd. Men
bellow through cupped hands. To a foreigner the reaction seems a little harsh: the poor man has yet to utter a
single line. However, no ushers appear to clear the stalls and soon everyone settles down to listen to the
opening speech. Then another actor enters and ka boom — the hecklers start again, leaning forward to scream
at the newcomer. Strangely, he appears pleased. Evidently I’m missing something.
The English commentary in my earphones soon confirms that I am. Such outbursts are expected, the voice
explains, even demanded in Japanese theatre. The audience is calling out the actors’ names, and the greater
the performer’s standing the higher the roof is raised. Forget the sharp ‘sshhh!’ that greets any interruption in a
Western theatre. Fans are supposed to shout here. Keeping your mouth shut is almost rude.
If you were to listen to the dinner party talk from Beijing to Bangalore, you might think theatre was all but dead
in Asia. The occasional touring production or big musical — Cats, The Phantom of the Opera, Les Miserables
and now Miss Saigon — offers glimpses of Broadway or London’s West End. But outside the dull conservatism
of national troupes or small-scale experimental groups, the culture vultures say pickings are slim.
Not so in Tokyo, the theatrical centre of the East. Simultaneous English translations and programme notes
make traditional shows easy to follow. And in the Ginza district, the heart of Tokyo’s theatreland, audiences
can catch not only Kabuki but also Japanese productions of Bernstein, Beckett, Shakespeare and Gilbert and
Sullivan.
Part of the fun of watching Western classics such as 42nd street is observing how Japanese portray foreigners.
It’s like seeing yourself in a fairground Hall of Mirrors: the image is familiar, but amusingly distorted. Wearing
blond wigs and remembering not to bow in greeting, the actors nonetheless sometimes resort to peculiarly
Japanese gestures: signalling ‘Me’ by pointing fingers to their noses and hiding laughter by pressing their
palms to their faces. The five troupes of the Takarazuka Grand Theater company, opposite the Imperial Hotel,
have a staggering repertoire from West Side Story to Hamlet and perform their own dramatizations of Hemingway’s
For Whom the Bell Tolls and Tolstoy’s War and Peace. The male leads are romantic and clean-cut, strong yet
sensitive, not least because they are played by women. The mobs of female fans that crowd the stage door
after the show bear witness to how poorly Japanese men apparently measure up to this ideal. Its recent
productions include Gone with the Wind, Jekyll and Hyde and Fiddler on the Roof.
Even Kabuki is getting accessible. The Ichikawa family’s Super Kabuki company has reinvented the genre for
modern audiences by featuring special effects that wouldn’t be out of place in Hollywood. In Shin Sangokushi,
a real waterfall as wide as the stage is the backdrop for a hair-raising battle to the death. Spectators in one
corner are given plastic capes to protect themselves from the victor’s splashy triumph. In another scene, a
doomed ship floats on a sea of dry ice — its crew writhing in flames of flickering red light before breaking in two
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and plunging through the stage with a groan worthy of the Titanic. Taped commentaries offer whispered guides
to the complicated and often racy plots. The Tourist Information Center will tell you where the company is
playing. Or try the more traditional and world-famous Kabuki-za at the Ginza stop on the Hibiya subway, which
also features English commentaries. But be warned: Kabuki-za’s epics can each run to five hours.
After the show, Ginza offers Tokyo’s finest and (most expensive) sushi, at up to $300 a head. But just as
authentic and considerably cheaper is the alfresco Yurakucho Yakitori Alley, where $30 will buy a meal of some
of the capital’s best grilled chicken, beef or seafood. The area is under the Shinkansen line and a stroll from
most theatres. Call it ’Bullet Trains over Broadway’.
1. A foreigner finds the reaction of a crowd to the entry of an actor as harsh because
a. the actor has not yet demonstrated his talents to the crowd for their judgment.
b. the author could not hear a word of what was going on.
c. the author could not understand the regional language.
d. the opening speech was drowned in the pandemonium that ensued.
2. The word ‘alfresco’ in the passage refers to
a. a wall painting.
b. a cheap eating-joint.
c. an open air eating place.
d. None of these
3. The word ‘sshhh’ in the passage implies that
a. the author was not happy to witness the chaos in the Japanese theatre.
b. Western audiences are not very demonstrative when it comes to appreciating the theatre.
c. interruptions are not welcome in Western theatres.
d. None of these
4. How does the author react to the duration of the Kabuki-za epic?
a. He is elated.
b. He is doubtful whether one can stay that long.
c. He prefers one-act plays.
d. Cannot say
5. With the term ‘…pickings are slim’, the author wishes to convey that
a. theatre thrives in Asia.
b. the big musicals boasts of a large audience.
c. theatre is not very active in Asia.
d. theaters do not make enough money to cover expenses and so they totter on the way.
6. The plastic capes were given to part of the spectators
a. to ensure that the spectators are able to protect themselves from extreme hooliganism.
b. to generate special effects for the drama.
c. to protect the spectators from the water splashing around in the finale.
d. so that they can avoid the glare of the arc-lights.
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7. What is the author’s reaction to the way the Japanese portray foreigners in Western classics?
a. He finds it derisive.
b. He thinks that the Japanese are being patronizing.
c. He is amused.
d. He feels that they are making a mockery of the Western culture.
8. The author feels that the Japanese men
a. match the Japanese women stroke by stroke.
b. are romantic and callous.
c. do not measure up to the ideal male leads in the theatre.
d. are lapping up all the lead roles.
9. The recent productions of the Takarazuka Grand Theater company do not include
a. Pride and Prejudice. b. Gone with the Wind. c. Fiddler on the Roof. d. Jekyll and Hyde.
10. The word ‘repertoire’ in the passage means
a. lead roles. b. collection of plays. c. place of performance. d. None of these
Passage – 2
When we remember President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s leadership after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor,
we tend to think of the famous response that he carefully dictated to his secretary, punctuation included:
“Yesterday comma December 7 comma 1941 dash a date which will live in infamy . . .” Yet the President’s
leadership was most sorely tested not on the Sunday of the surprise attack or the Monday he delivered his
address but in the long, difficult days that followed. Then as now, America’s sense of territorial invulnerability
had been shattered. Rumours swirled: the Japanese were planning to bomb Los Angeles, were already bombing
San Francisco. There was real fear, not just among the public but also within the government, that Japan might
invade the American mainland, whose defences were weakened by the crippling of the Navy.
The differences between Pearl Harbor and last Tuesday’s attack are abundant. At Pearl Harbor, the Japanese
targeted a military base; last week the terrorists targeted ordinary civilians travelling in the air, working in their
offices, walking on the streets. Then, unlike today, we faced discrete, known enemies. But Pearl Harbor, and
America’s larger history, teaches us that at these crucial junctures, resolve and unity are powerful weapons
against despair and hysteria.
After Pearl Harbor, symbolic acts were as significant as physical preparation for war. Franklin and Eleanor
Roosevelt worked together to demonstrate that the war overseas would be won only by preserving American
liberty at home. The week after the raid, the Secret Service suggested a list of security measures at the White
House: camouflaging the building, placing machine guns on the roof, covering the skylights with sand and tin.
Roosevelt rejected most of the suggestions, to show that the capital stood unbowed — much as, a century
earlier, Abraham Lincoln insisted that the construction of the Capitol dome be completed in the midst of the
Civil War. Similarly, on Tuesday President Bush decided to end the day in Washington rather than in a NORAD
bunker. On Friday he presided over a national day of prayer, giving prominent roles to people of all races and
creeds, including a Muslim religious leader.
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Eleanor, visiting the West Coast after Pearl Harbor, bore witness to the hysteria directed against Japanese
Americans. Government officials swooped down upon Japanese banks, stores and houses. Swimming against
the tide of prejudice, Eleanor antagonized many Californians when she called for tolerance and posed for a
picture with US born Japanese Americans; the editorial board of The Los Angeles Times reacted angrily and
called for her forcible retirement from public life. The First Lady responded that more than fairness was at
stake:”Almost the biggest obligation we have today is to prove that in a time of stress we can still live up to our
beliefs.” Though the US later let that principle down with the internment camps, it remains a valuable point to
remember, particularly if images of Palestinians celebrating the attacks inflame anger at Arab Americans here.
In many ways, the challenge facing George W. Bush is greater than Roosevelt’s. F.D.R. was an immensely
popular third-term president who had led America through the Great Depression. And he had the luxury of
immediate, concrete action that galvanized Americans in the days and weeks after the attack. There were
weapons to be built, resources to be conserved, a military force to assemble. This week, outside Washington
and New York City, there was little more for most Americans to do than give blood.
But the crisis today makes such mundane acts heroic. Terrorism seeks to turn ordinary life into a battlefield,
and the bravest act Americans can undertake in the coming weeks is to go about their daily lives, ride airplanes
and elevators and do what the British did during the Blitz, show up at work every morning. Today, Bush has the
opportunity to draw on something we rarely experience: the feeling that America is not merely an abstraction
but an entity of which we are each a vital part.
On Christmas Eve 1941, over the objections of the Secret Service, F.D.R insisted on lighting the White House
Christmas tree. It made a memorable night for the fifteen thousand people who gathered to hear him speak,
illumined by a crescent moon, the red light of the Washington Monument and the glow of the tree. While we
prepare to strike back against terrorism and secure our skies and our homes, the challenge to our leaders and
to all of us is to show that no terrorist group will be allowed to extinguish the beacons of freedom and democracy.
11. Roosevelt’s leadership evokes memories of his famous response because
a. Pearl Harbor was attacked on December 7, 1941.
b. he delivered his address in parliament and asked Congress for a declaration of war.
c. America’s invincibility came under question during his tenure.
d. the response is now inevitably linked to his tenure during the attack on Pearl Harbor.
12. The word ‘beacons’ is used in the passage to convey
a. that no one can take away America’s right to freedom.
b. the safety of the skies were taken for granted before the Pearl Harbor attack.
c. that the torch of freedom and democracy shall not be extinguished.
d. None of these
13. How were the enemies of the Pearl Harbor attack different from the enemies of the Tuesday attack?
a. The enemies in the former case were unknown and the enemies of the Tuesday attack were identified
terrorists.
b. The enemies in the former case were untrained and the enemies of the Tuesday attack were experts.
c. The enemies in the former case were identifiable and the enemies of the Tuesday attack were faceless.
d. None of these
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14. We can infer from the passage that the passage is written by a contemporary of
a. Franklin D. Roosevelt b. George W. Bush
c. Either of these d. Cannot say
15. Which of the following is not an example of a ‘mundane act made heroic’?
a. To ride airplanes after the Tuesday attack.
b. To show up at work every morning.
c. To go about one’s daily routines without taking any extraordinary precautionary measure.
d. None of these
16. Why is the challenge facing George W. Bush greater than that Roosevelt faced?
a. Roosevelt was a third-term president and so was already very popular.
b. Roosevelt had a concrete action plan in hand to galvanize the Americans into action.
c. Roosevelt had already proved himself by leading America through the Great Depression.
d. All of these
17. In the passage, the author draws comparisons between all of the below except
a. Roosevelt and Lincoln.
b. Roosevelt and Bush.
c. the Pearl Harbor attack and the Tuesday attack.
d. Franklin and Eleanor Roosevelt.
18. Eleanor Roosevelt’s response can be termed as
a. prejudiced. b. frivolous. c. contrived. d. courageous.
19. The lesson that is learned from the Roosevelts is
a. declare war against your enemies.
b. take all the necessary measures to guarantee that you shall not become a target of enemy attacks
again.
c. not to be cowed down, not to blame the wrong people and not to give up your beliefs under stress.
d. None of these
20. The word ‘abstraction’ is used in the passage to convey that
a. the citizens of America do not consider themselves as part of a great nation.
b. America is not a theoretical concept but a concrete entity that is comprised of its citizens.
c. Americans are not very patriotic at the national level.
d. None of these
Passage – 3
At 10 every morning, Tabassum, a Lakme beauty advisor, walks into Unique Matching Centre, a medium-sized
women’s needs outlet in Dadar (West), Mumbai. By the time she walks out every evening, she has talked to
over 50 customers and sold Lakme Lever colour cosmetics worth Rs. 850-1,000. That’s a good 30-40% higher
than what Unique sold before her appointment. According to Lakme Lever (a division of Hindustan Lever), last
festive season Tabassum and 389 such beauty advisors grew Lakme sales at these outlets by 42% — more
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than its growth expectations of 16% and way above the 10-25% averaged by the 60,000 other outlets that retail
Lakme’s colour cosmetics sans advisors.
Cosmetics major Lakme’s theory that adding a service dimension to the brand would increase sales is beginning
to pay off. And it is taking a quantum leap forward by entering the Rs. 500 crore beauty salons business.
It has 32 full fledged salons around the country; four of these have been around since the seventies and the rest
have come up in the last one year. It now plans to roll out another 200 over the next three years. That will make
it one of the world’s largest beauty salon chains. In fact, HLL’s foray into the services business, the laundrette
pilot and home delivery (Sangam Direct), was also promoted by the Lakme experience.
So why did this FMCG company enter services? Lakme’s position as market leader was threatened when
international majors like Revlon and Maybelline entered the fray in the mid-90s. Lakme realised it had to do
something fast to retain its 60 per cent market share. It launched Elle 18 (a lower-priced brand targeted at
teenagers). And figured that point-of-sale push would help. Thus, the beauty advisor idea emerged.
Tabassum’s presence behind the counter and the interaction she brings into the consumer’s purchase experience
turned out to be a key sale clincher in the Rs. 500 crore colour cosmetics category that is largely driven
by impulse purchases. The advisors gave Lakme a direct information channel for consumer preferences and
offtake, among other things. This helped the company cut inventory by about 40 per cent, while maintaining its
S.K.U. (stock keeping unit) strength of 185. No specific numbers are available, but going by the industry’s
average inventory holding of about 16-20 weeks along the supply chain, Lakme saves around Rs. 15-20 crores.
Sure, its stockout rose from three to five per cent, but counters Anil Chopra, business head at Lakme Lever, the
savings from the inventory cuts more than offset this loss. Advisors also cost Lakme little; they are employed
by the distributors; Lakme only indirectly subsidises the cost. The risk of failure, too, is low: an advisor can be
replaced easily. And the model is scaleable.
No wonder Lakme Lever is rolling out the beauty advisor concept. The idea is to have them man outlets with
monthly sales of Rs. 25,000 plus. Of the 600 nationwise outlets that fit the bill, advisors remain to be placed in
210. This could take another year.
“Consumers like and even expect a certain amount of hand-holding in choosing cosmetics,” says Inder Madhan,
GM, Lifespring, a health and beauty chain. Others like Modi Revlon have employed this strategy to even better
effect, “We have seen our sales go up by 50 per cent whenever we place a beauty advisor in an outlet. Revlon
is the best selling brand in all the stores that we have a beauty advisor in,” claims Umesh Kumar Modi, CEO,
Modi Revlon. Nevertheless, none have adopted a scale as large as that of Lakme’s. Modi plans to increase the
number of advisors by 50 per cent this year, to a total of only 500 in two years. It also does not plan to set up
any beauty salons here, unlike in the international markets where Revlon has outlets, albeit on a small scale.
So what does Lakme see in salons that others don’t? Chopra expects the Indian market to grow at 20 per cent
annually to touch Rs. 1,000 crore in four years. “There are 4,936 salons in Delhi alone, about 11 per cent of
which are in the A+ (super premium) category, and 20 per cent are in the B+ and B categories,” says Rohit
Sood, vice president (marketing), Brushman India, the marketing partner of Dutch hair cosmetics giant Keune,
which is setting up 80 haircare salons in the next three years. If each salon in Delhi makes an average of
Rs. 500 a day (premium brands like Keune expect Rs 2,000 per chair per day) the Delhi salon market could be
worth Rs. 75 crore a year. Demand, too, is growing, given the 25 million-odd middle- and upper-class working
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women in India who are becoming increasingly conscious of their looks. Profit margins are also good: Lakme
can net 25-30 per cent (almost double the margins made selling cosmetics) through the franchisee model.
According to the Global Salon Panels India 2001 report, published by Diagonal Reports, an Ireland-based
market intelligence research firm, 80 per cent of the 1,000 salons that were polled used Wella (an international
brand), 60 per cent used L’Oreal and 40 per cent used brands like Avon, Ayur and Shahnaz Hussain, among
others. Lakme and HLL were not among the most preferred. Sales has to be pushed at the salons, but Lakme
figured it could do better. It decided to set up its own business. ”We wanted to create an alternative channel,”
says Chopra.
Each salon will have a standardised format: 2,000 square feet space costing about Rs. 20 lakh (excluding real
estate). Some of the salons will be company owned; most of the new ones will be franchised. The model has
been perfected in smaller cities including Pune, Indore, Vadodara, Ludhiana and Jalandhar. Lakme will provide
the technical expertise; investments in real estate and operations will be made by the franchisee.
Cosmetics firms have succeeded in the salons business abroad. UK-based Toni and Guy, which makes
haircare products and runs 150 hair salons, is the best example. For Lakme to succeed, it has to first iron out
a few glitches.
First is reach. Few people visit salons that are not in their neighbourhood. Can Lakme get that kind of reach in
all the major cities? Unlikely, in the short-term. “Some sort of an alliance or co-branding with the salons that
already exist may, perhaps, have been a better strategy,” argues Keune’s Sood. Second is positioning. “The
general perception is that company-owned salons are expensive. Though Lakme beauty salons are reasonably
priced, it has not been communicated well enough,” says the business head of an upmarket salon chain.
Once sorted out, salons can also fuel the growth of HLL’s hair-care brands.”Currently, about 10 per cent of our
salons’ total billings are product sales. This could go up to 20 per cent,” says Chopra.
Most significant though will be the impact on Lakme’s bottomline. By going for franchises, Lakme avoids large
capital investments and recurring expenditure. Yet, it will get 20 per cent of the salons’ billings as franchise
fees. If the business grows big enough to contribute 25-30 per cent of sales 2004 onwards (from the current five
per cent levels) as Chopra hopes, it could even contribute one-third to one-half of Lakme’s profits. And that’s
why Lakme is donning the war paint.
21. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
a. Beauty advisors grew Lakme’s sales by 42 per cent in the last festive season.
b. Lakme had a growth expectation of 16 per cent in the last festive season.
c. Retail outlets grew Lakme’s sales by 10-25 per cent in the last festive season.
d. None of the above
22. The author uses the term ‘donning the war paint’ to convey that
a. Lakme is on the warpath with HLL hair-care brands.
b. Lakme is making an all-out effort to up its profits through the franchising route.
c. Lakme is focusing only on colour cosmetics at the moment to paint the town red.
d. None of the above
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23. We can infer from the passage that
a. Lakme’s plans of making itself into one of the world’s largest beauty salon chains would remain a
pipeline dream.
b. Lakme’s four beauty salons that existed from the seventies have not been an encouraging experience.
c. Sangam Direct would not have been launched had it not been for the Lakme experience.
d. None of the above
24. The best example of a cosmetic firm that has successfully ventured into the salon business is
a. Keune. b. Modi Revlon. c. Toni and Guy. d. L’Oreal.
25. According to the passage, all of the following statements are true except
a. beauty advisors helped Lakme cut inventory by about 40 per cent.
b. Lakme regrets that its stockouts rose from three to five per cent.
c. beauty advisors are not an expensive proposition for Lakme.
d. None of the above
26. The Global Salon Panels India 2001 report revealed all of the below except which one?
a. Wella was the most preferred brand.
b. L’Oreal was used by 60 per cent of the salons polled.
c. Ayur was not left behind in the race for the preferred brand.
d. HLL was not among the preferred brands.
27. The author mentions ‘consumers expect a certain amount of hand-holding’ to imply that
a. Lakme beauty salons have not communicated their pricing strategy accurately to the people.
b. the colour cosmetic customer has no clue as to how to enhance her beauty through makeup.
c. consumers prefer expert guidance in buying the right cosmetics.
d. customers are easy prey for a smooth-talking saleswoman.
28. A suitable topic for the passage would be
a. Lakme — Leading the Cosmetic Market.
b. Salon Business to the Rescue.
c. Beauty Tips Boost Lakme Sales.
d. Lakme Enters the Service Sector.
29. Approximately, what percentage of Delhi salons falls in the super premium category?
a. 20 per cent b. 21 per cent c. 11 per cent d. 25 per cent
30. What made Lakme take action to retain its market share?
a. Teenagers did not show much interest in cosmetics.
b. Lakme’s brand equity was eroded by the failure of salons business.
c. Franchise models tried out in smaller cities flopped in big metros.
d. Lakme felt the threatening presence of international leaders like Revlon.
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Direction for questions 31 to 35: Choose the correct synonym for the given word from the four alternatives.
31. Amass
a. Go to church b. Attend a sermon c. To gather a lot of d. Heavy
32. Discreet
a. Separate b. Careful c. Sly d. Mischievous
33. Cortege
a. Procession b. Race c. Bridal gown d. Lace
34. Forestall
a. Mark b. Purchase c. Regret d. Prevent
35. Colossal
a. Loss b. Huge c. Exceed d. List
Direction for questions 36 to 40: Choose the correct antonym for the given word from the alternatives provided.
36. Illicit
a. Unlawful b. Legalize c. Cheat d. Lawful
37. Flawed
a. Peculiar b. Perfect c. Compliant d. Fleece
38. Jarring
a. Disturbing b. Shock c. Pleasant d. Stifling
39. Peril
a. Safety b. Disregard c. Dangerous d. Pure
40. Teetotaler
a. Priestly b. Lavish c. Alcoholic d. Tiresome
Direction for questions 41 to 45: Choose the one-word from among the given choices that can act as a
substitute for the given definition.
41. An image or thing that is important or impressive because it is a symbol of something:
a. Cynosure b. Iconic c. Grand d. Majesty
Section – II
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42. To consider and talk about each detail of a theory or a situation:
a. Gossip b. Moot c. Dissect d. Ponder
43. All the traditions of a country that has continued for many years and have been passed on from one
generation to another:
a. Heritage b. Moribund c. Orthodox d. Conservative
44. Goods of a higher than usual quality and often expensive:
a. Pricey b. Bauble c. Meretricious d. Premium
45. A narrow piece of decorated cloth or twisted threads, which is used to decorate clothes or curtains:
a. Relay b. Braid c. Warp d. Weft
Direction for questions 46 to 50: Complete the sentences given below by selecting the appropriate choice
from among the given alternatives.
46. Washington is ___ to prepare its people for a prolonged retaliatory strike.
a. stepping down efforts b. stepping up effort
c. stepping up efforts d. stepped up efforts
47. When we do survive, ___ .
a. we realize now truly wonderful life is b. we realize how wonderful, truly is life
c. we realize how truly wonderful life are d. we realize how truly wonderful life is
48. It’s a pity ___ selfish, ungrateful person inside.
a. which most people see only your good-looking exterior and not the
b. that most people see only your good-looking exterior and not the
c. that most people see only your good-looking exterior and the not
d. that most people see only your good-looking exterior and not
49. We must be guided by ___ mere revenge.
a. higher goals than b. higher goals than by c. higher goals d. higher goal than
50. Give yourself permission ___ boredom or irritation.
a. to feel what you’re feeling, the professionals urge, even if it’s
b. to feel what you’re feel, the professionals urge, even if it’s
c. to feel what you’re feeling, the professionals urges, even if it’s
d. to feel what you’re feeling, the professional urge, even if it’s
Direction for questions 51 to 55: Select the appropriate pair of words from among the given choices that
parallels the relation in the given pair of words in the question.
51. Nemesis : Punishment
a. Revenge : Likely b. Rationality : Logic
c. Reason : Infamy d. Paragon : Crisis
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52. Hack : Carve
a. Grind : Polish b. Whet : Blunt
c. Gouge : Engrave d. Snip : Mince
53. Slur : Speech
a. Smudge : Writing b. Erase : Drawing
c. Confuse : Puzzle d. Decrease : Volume
54. Prairie : North America
a. Steppe : Croatia b. Villa : Burgundy
c. Chateaux : France d. Tropic : Bahamas
55. Hindsight : After
a. Premonition : Before b. Foresight : Condition
c. Judgment : Conceited d. Descry : Tantalize
Direction for questions 56 to 60: Pick out the word from among the given choices that has the correct
spelling.
56. a. Awowed b. Avoved c. Avowed d. Evowed
57. a. Strolle b. Stroll c. Strol d. Astroll
58. a. Pendemonium b. Pandemonuim c. Pandaemonium d. Pandemonium
59. a. Tattoos b. Tatoos c. Tattos d. Tattooz
60. a. Predecesors b. Predecessors c. Predesessors d. Predecessers
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Section – III
61. Dashing Bhaskar can stuff valentine cards into envelopes at a rate of 45 envelopes per minute while
Dynamic Lajwanti takes 1.5 min to stuff the same number. Working together, how much time will they
take to stuff 300 envelopes?
a. 3 min b. 3.5 min c. 3.75 min d. 4 min
62. On a certain day, Rohit started with p newspapers. From morning to noon, he sold 40% of the papers,
and between noon and evening he sold 60% of the remaining. Then he realised that had he sold double
the number of newspapers than he sold in the afternoon, he would have had to borrow 12 papers from
another vendor. Find p.
a. 108 b. 100 c. 96 d. 72
63. If a% of b is c, b% of c is a and c% of a is 1, then which of the following is not true?
a. a = 10 b. b = 100 c. a = c d. a = b
64. If n is an integer between 0 and 100, then any of the following could be 3n + 3 except
a. 300 b. 297 c. 208 d. 63
65. Suvakar charges interest on his lendings at 20% SI per annum. However, the interest is payable in the
beginning of each half-year. The effective half-yearly simple rate of interest would work out to be
a. 11.11% b. 10.5% c. 22.22% d. None of these
66. If log10 a, log10 b and log10 c are in AP, then a, b, c must be be in
a. AP b. HP c. GP d. both AP and GP
67. If logr p = 2 and logr q = 3, then what is the value of logp q?
a.
2
3
b. 6
1
c. 6 d. 3
2
68. Rashmi started a business with Rs. 4,500 and Pratima joined afterwards with Rs. 3,000. If the profits at
the end of one year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1 respectively, how many months later did Pratima join
the business after the start?
a. 1.5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4.5
69. Kunjumol’s bag contains 800 coins of 25-paisa denomination and 1,200 coins of 50-paisa denomination.
If 5% of 25-paisa coins and 25% of 50-paisa coins are removed, the percentage of money removed from
the bag is
a. 30% b. 20% c. 17.8% d. None of these
70. A company manufactures two products X and Y. One unit of X requires 3 units of material A and 2 units
of material B while one unit of Y requires 2 units of material A and 5 units of material B. If 25 units of each
product were to be produced, calculate the requirement of material B.
a. 175 b. 125 c. 150 d. None of these
Page 14 FMS - Mock
71. It costs Rs. 10,000 to make the first thousand copies of a book and x rupees to make each subsequent
copy. If it costs a total of Rs. 72,300 to make the first 8,000 copies of the book, what is the value x?
a. Rs. 8.90 b. Rs. 8.75 c. Rs. 89 d. None of these
72. Each time Princy smiles at Komal, she is rewarded Rs. 20 and each time she quarrels with Komal, she
pays a penalty of Rs. 15. If this sequence of smiling and quarrelling continues, in how many sequences
does Princy reaches the figure of Rs. 60 for the first time?
a. 8 b. 9.5 c. 12 d. 9
73. Find a and b such that (x + 1) and (x + 2) are factors of the polynomial x3 + ax2 –bx + 10.
a. 8 and –17 b. 17 and –8 c. –9 and –1 d. None of these
74. Given are the lengths of the sides and a diagonal of quadrilateral ABCD as shown below. Find its area
and length of the other diagonal.
A
B
C
D
5 m
5 m
7 m
7 m
6 m
a. 6 5, 5 6 b. 6 6, 4 6 c. 12 6, 4 6 d. 12 6, 5 6
75. Sanjay Veer is a land surveyor. One day he records the following details in his notebook. What is the
area of the land surveyed? (All readings are in metres.)
To Z
150
100
50
40
To K 50
To L 35
50 To Y
From X
a. 7,000 m2 b. 7,500 m2 c. 8,250 m2 d. 6,000 m2
76. The wages received by A, B and C together amount to Rs. 144. If A works for 10 days, B for 12 days and
C for 15 days, then the amount received by A, when the proportion of their daily wages is
1: 1: 1
2 3 5, is
a. Rs. 60 b. Rs. 48 c. Rs. 90 d. None of these
FMS - Mock Page 15
77. What is the least number which must be added to 299 to make the sum a perfect square?
a. 30 b. 27 c. 20 d. None of these
78. What must be the least number of the students in a group such that they can be arranged in lines of 10,
15 and 25 independently and can also be arranged in a square as a group?
a. 600 b. 900 c. 3,600 d. None of these
79. Ammar drives his car twice the speed of an auto. One day he drove the car for 10 min and the car broke
mid-way. He left the car and took an auto to reach the office. It took him 30 min from there to reach the
office. What would be the total time taken by car to reach his office?
a. 25 min b. 20 min c. 27 min d. 36 min
80. The angle of elevation of a patch of cloud from a point x metres above the surface of a pool is 30° and the
angle of depression of its reflection is 60°. What is the height of the cloud patch above the surface of the
pool?
a. 2x m b. 2x m c. x m d. 3
x
m
81. If xa = y, yb = z and zc = x, what is abc
1
?
a. xyz b. (xyz)abc c. 1 d. None
82. Two bullock carts move in the same direction from the same place at the rate of 4 km/hr and 4.5 km/hr
respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart?
a. 1 hr b. 3 hr 50 min c. 17 hr d. 13 hr 15 min
83. A train leaves from Meerut at 7 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 11 a.m. Another train leaves from Delhi at
9 a.m. and reaches Meerut at 12.30 p.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
a. 9.56 a.m. b. 10.36 a.m. c. 10.56 a.m. d. 11 a.m.
84. If x men working x hours a day can do x units of a work in x days, then y men working y hours per
day in y days would be able to complete how many units of work?
a. 3
2
y
x
b. 2
3
y
x
c. 3
2
x
y
d. 2
3
x
y
85. If f(x) = 1 + x +
x
1
, what is f ÷
ø
ö ç
è
æ
x
1
+ f(x)?
a. f(x) – f ÷
ø
ö ç
è
æ
x
1
b. f ÷
ø
ö ç
è
æ
x
1
– f(x)
c. 2f ÷
ø
ö ç
è
æ
x
1
d. [f(x)]2
Page 16 FMS - Mock
86. ò4x ×3x × exdx = ?
a. C
log 12
4 3 e
e
x x x
+
× × b. C
log (7e)
(7e)
e
x
+
c. C
2log 2 log 3 1
4 3 e
e e
x x x
+
+ +
× ×
d. None of these
87. Integrate
2 5
6
(x x )dx.
1 x
+
+ ò
a.
11 3 1 1
(1 x ) sin x C
32 2
éêë + + -ùúû+
b.
6 1 3
e
1 1
log x 1 tan x C
3 2
éêëæçè +ö÷ø+ - ùúû+
c. 6 1 3
e
1log x 1 tan x C
3
+ + - + d. None of these
88. The average salary of female employees in a company is Rs. 5,000 and that of male is Rs. 6,000. The
mean salary of all the employees is Rs. 5,700. Find the percentage of male and female employees
respectively.
a. 30% and 70% b. 70% and 30% c. 55% and 45% d. None of these
89. If ( )( )( )
...
x
x
y= x , then dx
dy
is
a. x(1 log x)
y
- b. x(1 ylog x)
y2
+ c. x(2 ylog x)
y2
- d. None of these
90.
x
tan x sin x
lim
x 0
+
®
is equal to
a. 2 b. 0 c. 1 d. None of these
91. 2, then
x c
lim c 2xx c
x c
x c
= -
-
-
®
a. c = 2 b. c = 4 c. c = 1 d. None of these
92. The mean of 10 numbers 2, x + 5, x + 6, x + 8, x + 9, x + 11, x + 12, x + 14, x + 15 and 24 is 17. Then
find the value of x.
a. 7 b. 9 c. 8 d. None of these
93. If y = log [sin-1( x )], then dx
dy
is
a. 2 1
1
2 x(1-x )sin- x
b. 2 x (1 x) sin x
1
- -1 c. 1
x
2 (1- x) sin- x d. None of these
FMS - Mock Page 17
94. If one root of quadratic equation px2+qx+r=0 is equal to the 4th power of the other, then
a. 0 q r p r p 5
4
5 1
5 2
5 4
= + + b. 0 q ) pr ( ) pr ( 5
4
5 1
= + + c. 5
4
5 4
5 4
p + r = q d. None of these
95. How many different words can be formed with the letters of ‘PUNJAB’, when both P and N are together?
a. 120 b. 240 c. 144 d. None of these
96. The area within the curve |x| + |y| = 8 is
a. 32 sq. units b. 64 sq. units c. 128 sq. units d. None of these
97. There are 19 identical red balls and one black ball. In a green jar 10 balls are put and the remaining
10 balls are put in a yellow jar. What is the probability of the black ball being in the yellow jar?
a. 19
9
b. 20
1
c. 19
1
d.
2
1
Direction for questions 98 to 102: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Unclaimed redemption and dividend amounts for TMF India Ltd.
The amount of dividends declared and redemptions made, which were remaining unclaimed as on the balance
sheet data are given below.
Scheme name Dividend Redemptions
Number of
unclaimed warrants
Amount
(Rs. in lakhs)
Number of
unclaimed warrants
Amount
(Rs. in lakhs)
TIGF 170 3.26 7 0.83
TIIF 1601 42.18 48 2.30
TGSF 212 17.76 4 0.15
TMIP 526 5.39 3 0.26
FIIF — — 0 0.00
FIBF — — 1 0.13
FIGF — — 3 0.50
Total 2509 68.59 69 4.17
98. What is the average dividend amount per unclaimed warrants across all schemes for TMF India Ltd.?
a. Rs. 1,964 b. Rs. 2,734 c. Rs. 3,822 d. None of these
99. What is the approximate ratio of the average redemption amount per warrant in TIGF scheme to that in
FIBF scheme?
a. 10 : 9 b. 9 : 10 c. 11 : 13 d. 9 : 13
Page 18 FMS - Mock
100. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) not true?
I. The total amount of unclaimed warrants for TIGF and TIIF schemes is Rs. 48.57 lakh.
II. TIIF scheme accounts for more than 60% of the total number of unclaimed warrants.
a. Only (I) b. Only (II) c. Both (I) and (II) d. Both are true
101. What is the percentage of unclaimed dividend amount in TMIP scheme?
a. 7.8% b. 5.2% c. 10.5% d. Cannot be determined
102. A scheme is given the ‘star’ status when it has minimum number of unclaimed warrants for that scheme,
among all others. Among the given schemes, which scheme is to be awarded ‘star’ status?
a. FIIF b. FIBF c. TIIF d. Cannot be determined
Direction for questions 103 to 107: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer the
questions using the following instructions.
Mark a. if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using
the other statement alone.
b. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
c. if the question can be answered by using both the the statements together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
d. if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
103. Is x greater than y?
I. x + y = 16
II. x + 2P = 5, y + P = 20
104. What is the distance of the point (x, y) from the origin?
I. x2 + y2 = 16
II. x = 4, y = 0
105. What is the value of x – y – z?
I. x, y, z are either 1 or 0
II. x2 + y2 + z2 = 1
106. What is the number k?
I. One-fourth of the number exceeds 5
1
of its succeeding number by 3.
II. k is a positive integer.
107. What is length of the side of an equilateral triangle formed by a wire?
I. The total length of the wire is divisible by 3.
II. The area of the rectangle formed by the same wire is twice the area of the square formed by the wire.
FMS - Mock Page 19
Direction for questions 108 to 112: Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.
A
B
L
F
C
D
G K
J
H
I
E
Teachers
Professors
Authors
Lecturers
108. Which of the following represents the teachers who are professors and lecturers, but not authors?
a. B b. E c. C d. None of these
109. ‘G’ represents the region of
a. teachers who are authors and professors but not lectures
b. lecturers who are authors and professors but not teachers
c. authors who are teachers and lecturers but not professors
d. lecturers who are authors but not professors and teachers
110. Lecturers who are not authors, teachers and professors are represented by
a. E b. F c. I d. L
111. Which of the following statement is true?
a. B represents the region of teachers who are professors but not lecturers
b. J represents the region of lecturers who are professors but not authors and teachers
c. C represents the region of teachers who are professors and lecturers but not authors
d. None of these
112. Only teachers, professors, lecturers and authors are represented respectively by
a. A, F, D, I b. A, D, I, H c. A, D, H, I d. A, D, L, H
Direction for questions 113 to 117: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven cars — Alto, Benz, Cadillac, Dolly, Electra, Fiat and Givo — are ranked on the basis of their performance,
consecutively in a row but not necessarily in the same order.
Following data is also given.
Alto is standing in the middle of the row. Benz is as much less than Alto as Cadillac is greater than Fiat in
ranking. Fiat is ranked three places less than Givo. Electra is ranked higher than Benz.
113. From right-hand side, the sixth car of the row is
a. Alto b. Cadillac c. Benz d. Givo
Page 20 FMS - Mock
114. How many cars are standing between Benz and Givo?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
115. If the rank of Fiat was 99 from left-hand side, then the sum of the rank values of Dolly and Electra would
be
a. 190 b. 200 c. 198 d. 204
116. Which of the following cars are standing at the beginning and the end of the rows?
a. Benz and Givo b. Dolly and Electra c. Dolly and Givo d. Electra and Benz
117. The number of cars separating Dolly and Cadillac is similar to the number of cars separating
a. Benz and Fiat b. Fiat and Givo c. Electra and Benz d. Fiat and Electra
Direction for questions 118 to 120: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
There are three different books written by different authors and are published by different publishers.
Following information is also given.
I. Vikram Chandra’s work is not published by Harper Collins.
II. Fiction work is not published either by Oxford University Press or Harper Collins.
III. V. S. Naipaul and Vikram Seth are not interested in doing non-fiction work.
IV. Poetry is not by Vikram Seth.
118. Harper Collins publishes
a. non-fiction b. fiction c. poetry d. Cannot be determined
119. Vikram Chandra’s work is published by
a. Penguin b. Harper Collins
c. Oxford University Press d. Cannot be determined
120. Which of the following is a correct combination?
a. Vikram Chandra – Poetry – Harper Collins
b. V. S. Naipaul – Non-fiction – Penguin
c. Vikram Seth – Fiction – Oxford University Press
d. None of the above
FMS - Mock Page 21
Section – IV
121. Indian Television Academy’s best news channel award has been won by which of the following news
channels recently?
a. Star News b. Zee News c. Aaj Tak d. DD-1
122. ‘Quality in everything we do’ is the punchline associated with which of the following companies?
a. DHL Worldwide Express b. Ernst & Young
c. Accenture d. Novell
123. The name ‘United Nations’ was suggested by which of the following famous personalties?
a. Winston Churchill b. Anwar Sadat c. Jimmy Carter d. Franklin D. Roosevelt
124. East Timor, that got independence from Indonesia recently, was very much in the news. East Timor
became independent on which of the following dates?
a. January 20, 2002 b. March 20, 2002 c. May 20, 2002 d. August 20, 2002
125. This airlines was in the news recently for filling bankruptcy — the biggest ever in the global aviation
history. We are taking about
a. France Air b. United Airlines c. Cathay Pacific d. Lufthansa
126. Which of the following personalities has recently been appointed as the chief executive officer of the
bankrupt WorldCom Inc.?
a. John Sidgmore b. Bernie Ebbers c. Michael Capellas d. Charles B. Wang
127. ‘Achtung baby’ and ‘easy to get in, bloody tough to get out’ are the famous advertisement campaigns
you would associate with
a. J. Watler Thompson b. Ogilvy & Mathers c. McCann-Erickson d. Saatchi & Saatchi
128. Jerry Young and David Flio are associated with the foundation of which of the following companies?
a. Seiko b. Google
c. Intel d. Yahoo
129. Which of the following world bodies was the outcome of Uruguay round of talks (1986-94)?
a. European Union b. World Economic Forum
c. World Trade Organisation d. International Monetary Fund
130. Which of the following famous inventors of all time is associated with the establishment of the world’s
most admired company GE?
a. Albert Einstein b. Benjamin Franklin c. Thomas Alva Edison d. Michael Faraday
131. Winner of Miss World 2002 title, held recently, is
a. Marina Mora Montero b. Natalia Peralta c. Agbani Darego d. Azra Akin
Page 22 FMS - Mock
132. Which of the following personalities is the architect of the Eiffel Tower?
a. Gustavo Eiffel b. Cesar Pelli c. Mauroice Koechlin d. Stephen Sauvestre
133. Which of the following personalities has won the prestigious Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for
excellence in public administration and management sciences for 2001 recently?
a. Deepak C. Jain b. Vijay Mahajan
c. N. R. Narayana Murthy d. Azim H. Premji
134. This person is the winner of ‘Asia Business Leader’ award by CNBC Asia Pacific and TNT channels
recently. Identify him from the given options.
a. B. Ramalinga Raju b. S. Ramadorai c. Nandan M. Nilekani d. Arun Jain
135. Apparel brand ‘Color plus’ has recently been acquired by which of the following garments major?
a. Raymods Ltd. b. S. Kumars c. Madura Garments d. None of these
136. Which of the following represents India’s final rank in the recently concluded Busan Asian Games 2002?
a. 6th b. 7th c. 8th d. 9th
137. What was India’s rank in the Global Competitiveness report 2002 by World Economic Forum?
a. 35 b. 48 c. 57 d. 65
138. According to a recent report by Transparency International, which of the following represents the least
corrupt nation of the world?
a. Norway b. Finland c. Germany d. Singapore
139. Miss Universe 2002 event took place at which of the following places?
a. London b. Abuja c. San Juan d. Caracas
140. The UN high commissioner for human rights presently is
a. Mary Robinson b. Sergio Vieirade Mello
c. Kevin Warwick d. Koichiro Matsuura
141. Which of the following banks was in the news recently as it has launched tax free bonds at seven per
cent rate of interest?
a. IDBI Bank b. State Bank of India
c. Reserve Bank of India d. ICICI Bank
142. UN conference on sustainable development took place at ___ recently.
a. Durban b. Johannesburg c. Rio de Janerio d. New York
143. Which of the following represents the number of countries in the European Union that have ‘Euro’ as
their common currency?
a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13
FMS - Mock Page 23
144. ‘International Literacy Day’ is observed every year on ___ throughout the world.
a. August 27 b. November 17 c. September 8 d. December 3
145. The winner of ICC Champions Cricket Trophy held at Colombo in September 2002 was
a. South Africa b. India
c. Sri Lanka d. India and Sri Lanka jointly
146. Who won the men’s single’s title of Wimbledon 2002 tournament?
a. Pete Sampras b. Albert Costa c. Lleyton Hewitt d. Marat Safin
147. According to a survery conducted by ORG-MARG, which of the following is the most trusted brand in the
year 2002?
a. Colgate b. Lux c. Dettol d. Britannia
148. The present Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is
a. 6.25 per cent b. 5.5 per cent c. 4.75 per cent d. 4.5 per cent
149. Which of the following is the name of the prepaid mobile service launched by BSNL recently?
a. Cell One b. Excel c. Dolphin d. Talkie
150. Who Says Elephants Cannot Dance is the title of a book authored by the former chief of which of the
following IT giants?
a. Intel b. Microsoft c. IBM d. Oracle
Page 24 FMS - Mock
Scoring table
Total questions Total attempted Total correct Total wrong Score Time taken
150
FMS - Mock
Answers & Explanations
1 a 2 c 3 c 4 b 5 c 6 c 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 b
11 d 12 c 13 c 14 b 15 d 16 d 17 d 18 d 19 c 20 b
21 d 22 b 23 c 24 c 25 b 26 d 27 c 28 d 29 c 30 d
31 c 32 b 33 a 34 d 35 b 36 d 37 b 38 c 39 a 40 c
41 b 42 c 43 a 44 d 45 b 46 c 47 d 48 b 49 b 50 a
51 b 52 c 53 a 54 c 55 a 56 c 57 b 58 d 59 a 60 b
61 d 62 b 63 d 64 c 65 d 66 c 67 a 68 c 69 b 70 a
71 a 72 d 73 a 74 c 75 c 76 a 77 d 78 b 79 a 80 b
81 c 82 c 83 a 84 d 85 c 86 c 87 b 88 b 89 c 90 a
91 c 92 c 93 d 94 d 95 b 96 c 97 d 98 b 99 b 100 d
101 a 102 d 103 c 104 b 105 d 106 a 107 d 108 c 109 c 110 d
111 c 112 d 113 c 114 b 115 b 116 b 117 d 118 c 119 c 120 d
121 c 122 b 123 b 124 c 125 b 126 c 127 c 128 d 129 c 130 c
131 d 132 d 133 c 134 b 135 a 136 c 137 b 138 b 139 a 140 b
141 c 142 b 143 c 144 c 145 d 146 c 147 c 148 c 149 b 150 c
FMS - Mock Page 25
1. Refer to paragraph 1.
2. Refer to the last paragraph.
3. Refer to paragraph 2.
4. Refer to paragraph 6 (last line).
5. Refer to paragraph 3 (last line).
6. Refer to paragraph 6.
7. Refer to paragraph 5.
8. Refer to paragraph 5.
9. Refer to paragraph 5.
10. Refer to paragraph 5.
11. Refer to paragraph 1.
12. Refer to the last paragraph.
13. Refer to paragraph 2.
14. Read the last line of the passage.
15. Refer to paragraph 6.
16. Refer to paragraph 5.
17. The actions of the First Couple have not been compared
in the passage.
18. Refer to paragraph 4.
19. Refer to paragraphs 3 and 4.
20. Refer to paragraph 6.
21. Refer to paragraph 1.
22. Refer to the last paragraph.
23. Refer to paragraph 2.
24. Refer to paragraph 10.
25. Refer to paragraph 4.
26. HLL was not among the most preferred brands.
27. Refer to paragraph 6.
28. The passage is about Lakme entering the services
business.
29. Refer to paragraph 7.
30. Refer to paragraph 3.
31. Amass is to accumulate or gather together.
32. Discreet is to be tactful in speech or action, especially to
avoid social disgrace or embarrassment.
33. Cortege is a funeral procession.
34. Forestall is to act in advance in order to prevent.
35. Colossal is of immense size, huge, gigantic.
36. Illicit is unlawful or forbidden.
37. Flawed is the opposite of perfect.
38. Jarring sounds are unpleasant.
39. To be in peril means you are in danger.
40. Teetotaler is person who abstains from alcoholic drink.
41. Iconic relates to an icon or image, while cynosure is a
center of attraction or admiration.
42. Dissecting an issue means to analyse, criticize or
examine in detail.
43. Heritage is anything that is inherited such as the
traditions and culture of country.
44. Premium products are high quality, expensive
products.
45. Braid is used for edging or trimming of clothes,
curtains etc.
46. ‘Stepping up efforts’ is the right answer.
47. Only (d) is appropriate.
48. Choice (b) is appropriate as it has the ‘that - clause’ and
the definite article ‘the’ before ‘ selfish … inside.’
49. Choice (b) has ‘by’ after ‘than’ and thus provides for
parallelism.
50. Choice (a) has “you’re feeling,” and “the professionals
urge,” which are the correct expressions to use.
51. Nemesis is about punishment just as rationality is about
logic.
52. Hack is to cut or chop roughly, while carve is to cut to
produce a shape figure or pattern. Gouge and engrave
are also related in a similar way.
53. Slur is unclear or garbled speech and smudge is blurred
or smeared writing.
54. Prairies are present in North America and you find
chateaux in France.
55. Hindsight is when you reflect after the event has
occurred. Premonition is something you feel beforehand.
56. Avowed comes from ‘vow’.
57. Stroll has to ‘l’s
58. Pandemonium comes form PAN + DEMON
Page 26 FMS - Mock
59. Tattoos has two consecutive ‘ts’ and two ‘o’s
60. Predecessors comes from “to precede”.
61. Since Dynamic Lajwanti stuffs 45 envelops in 1.5 min,
she stuffs 1.5
45
= 30 envelops in 1 min.
Now working together both of them stuff 45 + 30 = 75
envelopes in 1 min.
\ 300 envelops will be stuffed in 4
75
300
= min.
62. In the morning-noon session, he sells 0.4p. So he is left
with p – 0.4p = 0.6p. He sells 60% of it in the afternoon
session, i.e. 0.6p f.6 = 0.36p.
Now, had he sold twice of 0.36p i.e. 0.72p, he would
have to borrow 12 papers extra.
\ p + 12 = 0.4p + 0.72p
Þ 12 = 1.12p – p = 0.12p
Þ p = 100
63. a% of b = c Þ ab = 100 c ... (i)
b% of c = a Þ bc = 100 a ... (ii)
and c% of a = 1 Þ ca = 100 ... (iii)
Multiplying (i), (ii) and (iii), a2b2c2 = 1003 ac
Þ ab2c = 1003 . . . (iv)
Dividing (iv) by (iii), b 100
100
100
ac
ab2c 3
= Þ =
Now from (i), 100a = 100c Þ a = c ... (v)
Again from (iii) and (v), a2 = 100
Þ a = c = 10
Hence, only answer choice (d) is not true.
64. Among the given answer choices, only 208 meets the
requirement. When 3 is subtracted from it, we get 205,
which is not a multiple of 3.
65. We know
100
PRT
SI = , where R is rate of interest per annum, T is
the number of time periods. Now R for half-year = 10%
and T = 1.
0.1P
100
P 10 1
SI =
´ ´
\ =
Thus, effective half-yearly interest rate is 10%.
66. As they are in AP,
log10 b – log10 a = log10 c – log10 b
Þ 2 log b = log a + log c
Þ log b2 = log ac
Þ b2 = ac [Removing logarithm form both sides]
b
c
a
b
Þ =
Þ a, b, c are in GP
67. 2
3
log p
log q
r
r = [Applying the logarithmic formula in which
the base loses its relevance]
2
3
Þlogr q =
68. Let’s assume that Pratima joined x months after the start.
So while Rashmi has invested for 12 months, Pratima
invests for (12 – x) months.
Hence, 1
2
3000 (12 – x)
4500 12
=
´
´
Þ 3000x = 9000 Þ x = 3
69. 5% of 800 = 40 of 25-paisa denomination coins were
removed and 25% of 1200 = 300 of 50-paisa
denomination coins were removed.
So the value of money removed
= (40 × 25-paisa) + (300 × 50-paisa)
= Rs. 10 + Rs. 150 = Rs. 160
Original value of money = (800 × 25 P) + (1200 × 50 P)
= Rs. 200 + Rs. 600 = Rs. 800
\ Percentage of money removed = 20%
5
1
800
160
= = .
70. In one unit of X, there are 2 units of material B. So in
25 units of X, there would be 50 units of B.
Similarly, in 25 units of Y, there would be 125 units of B.
\ Total requirement of material B = 50 + 125 = 175.
71. First 1,000 copies cost Rs. 10,000. So Rs. 62,300 is the
cost for the rest 7,000 copies.
Now 7000x = 62300
Rs. 8.90
7000
62300
Þ x = =
72. In one sequence Princy receives a net amount of
Rs. 20 – 15 = Rs. 5.
In 8 sequences, she will get Rs. 40.
On the 9th sequence, she gets Rs. 20 by smiling and
reaches the desired figure of 60 for the first time.
73. Since (x + 1) and (x + 2) are factors of the polynomial, if
we put x = –1 and x = –2 in the expression, the value
would come to be zero.
Hence, if P(x) = x3 + ax2 – bx + 10, then
P(–1) = 0 = –1 + a + b + 10
Þ a + b = –9 ...(i)
and P(–2) = 0 = –8 + 4a + 2b + 10
Þ 2a + b = –1 ...(ii)
Now solving (i) and (ii), a = 8 and b = –17.
FMS - Mock Page 27
74.
A
B
C
D
P
Area of ABCD = 2 × Area of DABC
= 2 9 ´ 2´ 3´ 4
=12 6 m2
[Using Hero’s formula, D = s(s – a)(s – b)(s – c ) ]
Since DABC and DACD are concurrent,
DABC = ABCD 6 6
2
1
´ = cm2
AC BP
2
1
DABC = 6 6 = ´ [if BP ^ AC]
6 BP 6 6
2
1
Þ ´ ´ =
ÞBP = 2 6
Similarly, we can find that DP [if DP ^ AC] = 2 6
\BD = BP + DP = 2 6 + 2 6 = 4 6 m
75. The readings give rise to the following diagram
Z
Y
K
L
X
Q
P
R
35
40
50
100
150
50
50
Total area DXQY + DQZY + DKZP + Trapezium KPRL +
DXLR = 8250 m2
76. The ratio of their daily wages is 5
1
:
3
1
:
2
1
.
So the ratio of their wages for the full work is
5
15
:
3
12
:
2
10
, i.e. 5 : 4 : 3.
Hence, A’s amount = 144 Rs. 60
12
5
´ = .
77. Since the given number is 299, the nearest perfect square
below this number is 172 = 289. The next perfect square
would be 182 = 324.
Therefore, the number to be added = 324 – 299 = 25.
78. LCM(10, 15, 25) = 150; we have to find the nearest
multiple of 150 that is a perfect square. Hence, the nearest
such number is 900 which is six times of 150.
900 is also the square of 30.
79. Speed of the car is twice the speed of the auto.
So time taken by the car is half the time taken by the atuo.
Ammar goes by car for 10 min and by auto for 30 min.
Total time taken by him if he goes all the way by car
= (30) 10 15 25 min
2
1
10 + = + =
80.
A
B
C
D
E
60°
60°
30°
x
Cloud patch
Pool surface
[in ABC]
tan30
AB
BC = D
ÞBC = 3AB
Also BC = [in BDC]
tan 60
BD
D
°
3
BD
Þ BC =
3
BE ED
3
BD
3AB
+
\ = =
3
x ED
3AB
+
Þ =
Þ 3AB= x + ED
As AE = ED [Both being reflections across the pool
surface]
3AB = x + AE = x + AB + x Þ x = AB
Therefore, height of the cloud patch = AB+ BE
= x + x = 2x.
Page 28 FMS - Mock
81. xa = y, yb = z, zc = x
Þ xa = y
Þ xab = yb = z
Þ xabc = x
Þ abc = 1
Þ
abc
1
= 1
82. Time =
Speed
Dis tance v = 4 km/hr 1
v = 4.5 km/hr 2
Let in time t, the distance travelled by the first bullock cart
be x. Then the distance travelled by the second bullock
cart is x + 8.5 km.
\ x = t × 4 ... (i)
and x + 8.5 = t × 4.5 ... (ii)
(ii) – (i) Þ 8.5 = t(4.5 – 4), i.e. (d1 – d2) = t(v1 – v2)
t =
8.5
0.5 = 17 hr
83. Let the distance between Meerut and Delhi is one unit
and they meet at t time.
MD = 4
x
DM =
7/ 2
x
.
Using the formula, distance = Speed × Time
1 = 4
1
(t – 7) + 7
2
( t – 9)
1 = 28
7t- 49 + 8t - 72
Þ t = 9.56 a.m.
84. Here number of men, number of hours and number of
days are inputs, and work is output.
Output
Input
Output
Input
=
n
y.y.y
x
x.x.x
=
2
3
x
Þ n = y
85. f(x) = 1 + x + x
1
f ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
x
1
= 1 + x
1
+ x = f(x)
f ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
x
1
+ f(x) = 2f(x)
= 2f ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
x
1
86. 4 3 e dx (12 e) dx
x
x x x ò × × = ò ×
x
e
(12e) C
log (12e)
= +
C
2log 2 log 3 1
4 3 e
e e
x x x
+
+ +
× ×
=
87. We have dx
(1 x )
(x x )
I 6
2 5 ò +
+
=
dx
1 (x )
x (1 x )
3 2
2 3 ò +
+
=
Put x3 = t Þ3x2dx = dt
ò +
+
= dt
1 t
1 t
3
1
I 2
log t 1 tan t C
2
1
3
1 2 1
e + ú
û
ù
êë
é
+ ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
= æ + -
13 12logex6 1 tan 1x3 C
=éêæç +ö÷+ - ùú+
ëè ø û
88. Assume a and b be the number of male and female
employees respectively and x and y be the average
salary of male and female repectively. Assume n be the
average salary of all the employees in the company.
Then
a b
ax by
n
+
+
=
a b
a 6000 b 5000
5700
+
´ + ´
Þ =
Þ57 (a+b)=a´60+b´50
Þ3a = 7b
3
7
b
a
Þ =
So, percentage of male employees in the company
100 70%
10
7
= ´ = and female 100 30%
10
3
= ´ =
89. We have ( )
( )
...
x
( x )
y= x
( )y
Þ y = x
logx
2
1
Þlog y = y
Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
FMS - Mock Page 29
x
1
y
2
1
dx
dy
logx
2
1
dx
dy
y
1
= +
x
y
2
1
dx
dy
logx
2
1
y
1
= ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
Þ -
÷ ÷ø
ö
ç çè
æ
-
Þ =
2 y logx
2y
x
y
2
1
dx
dy
x(2 y logx)
y2
-
=
90. We know that
x 0
tanx
lim 1
® x
= and x 0
sinx
lim 1
® x
=
tanx sinx tanx sinx
lim lim lim
x 0 x x 0 x x 0 x
+
\ = +
® ® ®
=1+ 1= 2
91. Using the L’Hospital’s rule
x x log x
c log c 2cx
2 lim
e
x x
c 1
e
x
x c +
-
- =
-
®
c c log c
c log c 2c
2
e
c c
c
e
c
+
-
Þ - =
1 log c
log c 2
2
e
e
+
-
Þ - =
Þ -2 - 2 loge c = loge c - 2
Þloge c = 0
Þc = 1
92. We have
10
2 x 5 x 6 x 8 x 9 x 11 x 12 x 14 x 15 24
17
+ + + + + + + + + + + + + + + + +
=
Þ170 = 8x +106
Þ8x = 64
Þ x = 8
93. We have y = log[sin-1( x )]
Differentiating w.r.t. x, we get
( ) x
1
2
1
(1 x)
1
sin x
1
dx
dy
1 × ×
-
= × -
94. Assume one root of the quadratic equation be a . Then
the other root is a4 .
p
\a + a4 = - q … (i)
and p
a × a4 = r
5
÷ ÷ø
ö
ç çè
æ
Þa =
1
p
r
… (ii)
Substituting the value of a from (ii) in (i), we get
p
q
p
r
p
r 5
4
5 1
- = ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
+ ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
q
p
r
p
p
r
p
5 4
5 1
- = ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
+ ÷ ÷
ø
ö
ç çè
æ
Þ
0 q r p r p 5
4
5 4
5 1
5 1
1 1 Þ × + - = - -
p r p r 5 q 0
4
5 1
5 1
5 4
Þ + + =
95. When P and N are together, taking both as one letter, we
have 5 letters, and P and N can be arranged in 2! ways.
Hence, total number of words
= 5! × 2!
= 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 × 2 = 240.
96.
X
Y
X
Y’
8
8
–8
–8
O
We have |x| + |y| = 8,
when y = 0, x = 8 or –8
and when x = 0, y = 8 or –8.
Area
14
8 8 128 sq.unit
2
= ´ ´ ´ = .
97. There are only two possiblities:
either black ball goes in green or yellow jar.
Hence, probability = 2
1
.
Alternative method:
In yellow jar, 9 red balls and 1 black ball can be chosen
by 1
1
9
19C ´ C ways.
In yellow jar, total number of ways 9
= 20C
Page 30 FMS - Mock
Probability
19
9
20
9
19!
C 10! 9!
C 20!
10! 10!
= =
2
1
20
10
= =
98. Average dividend amount Rs. 2734
2509
68.59
= =
99. In TIGF scheme, average redemption amount per warrant
83,000
Rs. Rs. 11857.14
7
= =
In FIBF scheme, average Rs.13,000
1
13,000
= Rs. =
Ratio = 11857.14 : 13000 = 91 : 100 » 9 : 10
100. (I) TIGF and TIIF = Rs. (3.26 + 42.18 + 0.83 + 2.30) lakh
= Rs. 48.57 lakh
(II) Total number of warrants in TIIF scheme
= 1601 + 48 = 1649 out of total 2578 claims.
Hence, it is more than 60%.
101. Required percentage 7.8%
68.59
5.39
= »
102. The data on unclaimed dividend amounts for FIIF, FIBF
and FIGF are not given.
103. Both the statements combined gives unique solution of x
and y.
104. From (I), we get that the point (x, y) is on a circle whose
centre is at the origin and radius is 4.
From (II) again, the distance from origin is 4.
105. Statement (I) does not give any unique value of x, y, or z.
Statement (II) does not give any unique value. Combining
the two, we only get at least two of them are zero.
So both statements together are not sufficient.
106. From (I), we can form a linear equation to solve for the
value of k. So (I) is sufficient. From (II), we do not get any
unique value.
107. Both the statements independently are insufficient. Also
combining the two, we do not get any value.
Questions 108 to 112:
Go through the choices and the diagram.
Questions 113 to 117:
On the basis of the given information, we get Alto in the middle
Alto
Fiat is ranked three places less than Givo would mean that Fiat
and Givo cannot be at the extreme positions. The two possibilities
left are
Fiat Alto Givo
Fiat Alto Givo
(i)
(ii)
or
Now the possibility that Benz is as much less than Alto as Cadillac
is greater than Fiat in ranking can be justified in only this
arrangement and in none else, keeping all other restrictions in
mind.
Benz Fiat Alto Cadillac Givo
Now using the condition that Electra is ranked higher than Benz,
we get the final arrangement as:
Dolly Benz Fiat Alto Cardillac Givo Electra
Increasing rank based on performance®
And on the basis of the above arrangement, rest of the questions
can be solved very easily.
Questions 118 to 120:
From (I), we get
Vikram Chandra × Harper Collins.
From (II), we get
Fiction × Harper Collins or Oxford University Press.
From (III), we get
V. S. Naipaul and Vikaram Seth × Non-fiction work.
From (II), we get
Fiction – Penguin ... (A)
From (I), we get
Vikram Chandra – either Oxford or Penguin ... (B)
From (III), we get
Vikram Chandra – Non-fiction ... (C)
Combining (A), (B) and (C), we get
Vikram Chandra – Non-Fiction – Oxford University Press ... (D)
and
using (IV), we get
V. S. Nauipal – Poetry ... (E)
We already have Fiction – Penguin ... (A)
Using (D), (E) and (A), we get
Vikram Chandra – Non-fiction – Oxford University Press
V. S. Naipual – Poetry – Harper Collins
Vikram Seth – Fiction – Penguin
And on the basis of the above arrangement, rest of the questions
can be solved very easily.

CAT FULL PAPER V

1.OVOID

angular of birth epic of theatre

2. DESICCATED

insincere dead wet hard

3. CONSUMMATE

ideal beautiful flawed uncertain

4. NONCHALANT

concerned casual noisy polished

5. INNUENDO

friendliness aversion hate direct reference

Directions for questions 6 to 12 :
Four statements with blanks are followed by 4 alternatives. Choose the one which fits the set of statements the maximum number of times.

6
i. The sorry plight of the child will _______ him to tears.
ii. They have asked me to ______ the piano upstairs.
iii.The new management will ______ all the backlog work on to the sales manager.
iv. This is an extremely tactical ________ on her part.

reduce transfer shift move

7
.i. A methodical man plans his work in a ______ manner.
ii. He is, I admit, rather _______ on the uptake.
iii. The river clogged as it was with rubbish, flowed in a ______ manner down the plains.
iv. He is a man _______ to anger; but when roused, he is formidable.

deliberate slow sluggish leisurely

8.
i. She could not give free _____ to the smile that the joke brought to her lips.
ii. The new- fangled excise laws will serve merely to _____ free trade.
iii. Parents who impose too much control ________ the natural growth of children.
iv. Stepping off the ____, the child walked straight into the oncoming truck.

kerb check inhibit rein

9
i. He ______ the offer, although the Board made him the offer twice.
ii. After the introduction of mechanized textiles, the local handloom industry _______
iii. The incidence of crime in this suburb has ______ after the new Superintendent of Police assumed office.
iv. Again and again, in world history, have nations at the height of their glory ______ mysteriously.

declined decelerated reduced fallen

10
i. The members of the squid family ________ from small 6-inch creatures to huge 20-foot deep-sea denizens.
ii. The mountains of the Himalayan _______ span India, Pakistan, Nepal and Tibet.
iii. He has studied astrology in great _______, and is today one of the most knowledgeable men in India on this subject.
iv. At _______, he rose, put out the fire, and went out for a breath of fresh air.

depth width range length

11
i. Faced with news that his illness was _______, the man decided to enjoy each day to the fullest possible extent.
ii. My mind is made up, and my decision is ________.
iii. The current stalemate between France and Britain cannot _______ long in view of the common economic considerations.
iv. She stood at the departure _________, a forlorn and lost figure in the hurrying crowds.

last terminal final decisive

12.
i. The rains were in time, the harvest was bountiful and the children knew no ______.
ii. After dinner, he went for a stroll, as was his _________ .
iii. I am sure he ________ compromise on his ideals.
iv. Waste not, _______ not.

wont went want won't

Directions for questions 13 to 15 :
Each of the sentences below has two blank spaces indicating that something has been left out. Following each sentence four sets of words are given. Choose the set of words that makes the sentence more meaningful.

13. Man has created a mechanical civilization which largely ____ human_____

destroys, ambitions militates, ideals
degenerates, ethics ignores, values

14. _________ is necessary to distinction and uniformity in education tends to produce _________ in adult life.

Wealth, frailty Honour, variety
Diversity, ordinariness Fame, distinction

15. _________ rage is a psychological ______ and should be treated by a psychiatrist

Mindless, phenomenon Senseless, eccentricity
Uncontrollable, aberration Untold, malady

Directions for questions 16 to 19 :
Each of the question below consists of 2 capitalized words which have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four pairs of words. Choose the pair of words which are not related to each other in the same way the words of the capitalized words are related.

16. SHORE : SWIMMER

shrine : pilgrim peak : climber
route : driver destination : traveller

17. LUBRICANT : FRICTION

splint : mobility exercise : weight
antiseptic : infection diet : stability

18. FERVOR : ZEALOT

anger : critic doubt : skeptic fear : coward wisdom : sage

19. RAILLERY : DERISION

blessing : expiation
compliment : approbation
winnow : adulterate
strident : mellifluous

Directions for questions 20 to 22 :
Following sentences are broken up into four parts (1),(2),(3) and (4). Mark the part which would not be acceptable in standard written English.

20. At the super market you can buy goods really cheaply

21. All along the journey the stupid woman kept complaining

22. I will come and see you in case I pass through Delhi.

Directions for questions 23 to 25 :
Each of the sentences below has one blank space. Choose the alternative which when inserted in the sentence, best fits in with the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

23. A species does not lose the right to exist _______ because it does not provide eco-system service that is useful to humans.

unfairly fairly simply briefly

24. This feature on first aid tells you how to deal with common everyday accidents and how they can ________ by checking potentially dangerous situations.

be stopped be healed be dealt be prevented

25.At one point of time I wrote lifeless books and was __________ into purple passages, decorative adjectives and humbug generally.

introduced moved declining inspired.

Directions for questions 26 to 30 :
Each sentence given below is incomplete and is followed by four choices. Select from among the four choices the one which most logically completes the idea contained in the given sentence.

26. Foods have long been known to affect the body, but it has come as a complete surprise to scientists that certain foods influence the brain. You may soon be eating particular foods to improve memory or to enhance concentration and learning.

The liquid foods rather than solid ones would lend themselves more
readily for this purpose.
This is one reason to hope that illiteracy and ignorance will soon be things of the past.
So, there are reasons to believe that the 21^st century will be the century of enlightenment.
Breakfast may be planned to awaken your creative or analytic skills for a high powered day.

27. It is a shame to say it, but apparently mankind thrives on conflict._______.

A nation is never so alert and alive as when it is a nation at war.
Actually, life originated in conflict.
Peace is an interval between two wars.
Wars in many subtle ways have contributed to the betterment of human
life.

28. Some kids, bully their friends and shun the love showered on them. Eventually, they ______

grow up to be good law- abiding citizens.
become disgusted with their way of life and take a turn for the better.
grow up to be poets and artists of great merit.
grow up to rob, and kill.

29.Under the hot glare of psychology and sociology the heroes’s heroic qualities _____ .

have disappeared.
shine brightly.
have been dissolved into a blur of environmental influences and internal maladjustments.
have been enhanced to assume larger than life proportions.

30. Somewhat further in the future lies the auspicious possibility of creating geothermal wells where none naturally exist. This could be accomplished by ________ .

harnessing thermal energy from the seas and storing it in these wells in unlimited quantity.
building atomic reactors underground which use the earth’s heat for fuel.
splitting underground rocks heated naturally by volcanic activity deep in the earth and then pumping in water to produce steam.
altering climatic conditions which would make it possible to have these wells in any part of the world.

Directions for questions 31 to 35 :
In each of the following sentences, four words or phrases are underlined. You should choose the one word or phrase which would be not appropriate in standard written English. Mark (5) if you think that the sentence has no error.

31. Each of the delegates retired to their rooms to reflect on the matter separately.

delegates retired to their rooms on No error

32. You have to remove the fish scales before you fry them.

have to remove fish scales before them No Error

33.The ABC Company has a particularly good retirement plan for their employees.

ABC Company particularly good retirement plan
for their employees No errror

34.India needs a stronger legislation to curb crimes against women.

needs a stronger legislation to curb
against women No error

35. In many Indian newspapers, the use of hackneyed expressions, cliches and a plethora of quotations are common.

hackneyed plethora are common No Error

Directions for questions 36 to 42 :
Each of the following questions has two sentences A and B.
Mark (1), if you think sentence A has an error.
Mark (2), if you think sentence B has an error.
Mark (3), if you think both sentence A and B have errors.
Mark (4), if you think neither sentence has an error.

36.A. The sign on the door said that the office is closed until noon.
B. The noise from the flat over us made sleeping difficult.

1 2 3 4

37.A. Having climbed that mountain, they felt a real sense of achievement.
B. I would have liked to have lived in Shakespeare’s time.

1 2 3 4

38.A. I am not sure whether he is the man we need.
B. I have committed more mistakes than him.

1 2 3 4

39.A. I soon became acquainted with Gobind and Satpal, who I thought were terrorists.
B. We students always co-operated with our class teacher, who we respected and
who respected us.

1 2 3 4

40.A. To cope with the tornadoes, each Japanese town sets up their special warning
system.
B. The children sang all afternoon in the park.

1 2 3 4

41.A. The boss himself or his secretary answer the phone on Friday.
B. Neither the quality nor the prices have changed.

1 2 3 4

42.A. Mr. Khan consulted an astrologer who he had met in Kashi.
B. I resented him criticizing our every move.

1 2 3 4

Directions for questions 43 to 50:
Mark (1), if the sentence has one error. Mark (2), if the sentence has two errors. Mark (3), if the sentence has three errors. Mark (4), if the sentence has no error.

43. If Prachi enrolled in the class at the beginning, she could have secured good grades.

1 2 3 4

44. Curious attitude of ambivalence towards women has characterized our society from times immemorial.

1 2 3 4

45.Floods having carried away the bridge, the river is impassable.

1 2 3 4

46.A speech to the nation was to have been made by the Prime Minister, but it had to be cancelled at the last minute because of a cabinet crises.

1 2 3 4

47.The generous Mr. Dinkar, donates two-third of his income to charitable causes.

1 2 3 4

48.I hardly have any chance to make profit in this dogs-eat-dogs business.

1 2 3 4

49.The furnitures were polished and the house painted in preparation for the party the following week.

1 2 3 4

50.The house had been broken in, and twenty thousand rupees worth of jewelry had been robbed.

1 2 3 4

Directions for questions 51 to 55 :
Each of the following questions consist of 2 capitalized words which have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four numbered pairs of words. Choose the numbered pair which are related to each other in the SAME WAY as the words of the capitalized pair.

51. FOOT : SHOE

paper : weight legs : trousers hands : gloves head : hat

52.WAKE : WOKE

smite : smitten did : done beat : beat make : made

53.DEPOSIT : WITHDRAW

mend : repair come : arrive lend : borrow descend : attend

54. SITTER : CHAIR

nail : cobbler spoon : table cup : saucer milk : sugar

55. KILL : MURDER

love : hate run : scamper hinge : bind blind : seeing

Directions for questions 56 to 58 :
Each of the questions below consists of sentences with blank / s. Choose the word /s best fitted from the choices given below.

56. The great East Asian currency meltdown has __________ India and Indians in various and curious ways.

effected troubled marooned affected

57.Customer __________ and service ___________ ensure that you always reach your destination on time when you fly by Indian Airlines.

satisfaction……levels
commitment…………standards
profiling……..mindedness
preference……….orientation

58.Artistes usually look for established companies that will promote them not as singers, but as a __________.

launchpad orchestra idol brand

Directions for questions 59 to 60 :
The questions below consist of a group of sentences followed by a suggested sequential arrangement. Select the best sequence.

<>

59.
a) In the face of all this, a potential predator can hardly be blamed for not realising that the lizard is harmless.
b) The frill stands out in a disc upto 2 feet across.
c) The lizard adds to its alarming increase in apparent size by opening its mouth to reveal a bright yellow interior, and hisses loudly.
d) When alarmed, the Australian frilled lizard which is 3 feet long, raises a frill which normally lies flat along the neck.
e) Many animals have found that the next best thing to being fierce is looking fierce. <>

decba edbca eabdc cdbae

60
a). A third economist feels that inflation is a psychological process made worse by uncertainty.
b) Almost every economist has a different approach to the problem of inflation.
c) Another economist might insist that once it has started, inflation is fuelled by wage demands and he might argue for tight control of wages.
d) One economist might favour the approach of limiting the money supply by restricting credit.
e) So, he might suggest increasing wages and pensions in order to remove the uncertainty.

badec bdcae bdcea dbcea.

Each question is followed by 2 statements
Mark (1) if statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient
Mark (2) if statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient
Mark (3) if both statements I & II together are sufficient but neither statements alone is sufficient
Mark (4) if each statement alone is sufficient
Mark (5) if statement I &II together are not sufficient.

61. Is P > Q
I. 6p + 6q is positive
II. 6p + 6q is positive

1 2 3 4 5

62. What is the value of A + B
I. A = 50% of B
II. 2A + 2B = 40

1 2 3 4 5

63. How fast can Roger run ?
I. He takes 1 minute to climb up staircase 100 m long
II. He takes 20 seconds to climb down the staircase

1 2 3 4 5

64. Is point O is the first Quadrant
I. O lies within the circles with centre at origin and radius ?
II. O lies on the straight line 2x + y = 6

1 2 3 4 5

65. Find the rate of simple Interest if
I. The principle trebles itself in 9 years
II. The principle is Rs 3000

1 2 3 4 5

66. X, Y, & Z are participating in a 100 meter race, how much can x give y in the race.
I. Y can give Z 10 meters in a 200 meter race
II. X completes the race 5 minutes before Z

1 2 3 4 5

67. What are the coordinates of the centroid of DABC
I. The coordinates of points A and B are ( 2, 3 ) and ( 1, 4) respectively.
II. The centroid of triangle divides the medians of the triangle in the ratio 3 : 2

1 2 3 4 5

68. A Student must pass in both History and Geography for being promoted. How many of the 30
students in the class were promoted if nobody failed in both the subjects.
I. 20 passed in History
II. 25 passed in Maths

1 2 3 4 5

69. What is the area of a rectangle PQRS.
I. The length of the diagonal is 16
II. The perimeter of the rectangle is more than 20

1 2 3 4 5

70. Is X’s height greater than 190 cms.
I. If x grows 10 cm, his height will be more than 190 cms.
II. If he grows 5 cm , his height will be less than 190 cms.

1 2 3 4 5

71. Four cities P,Q,R & S form a square A train travels the route P-Q-R-S . The trains speed trebles after each city. What is the train’s average speed for the journey.
I. The train travelled at 600 km/h
II. The train maintained a constant speed between any 2 cities.

1 2 3 4 5

72. What was the price of milk in the 26^th week of 1998
I. During the 1^st week of 1998, the price of milk was Rs 15
II. The price of milk increase at 50 p. during the first five months of 1998.

1 2 3 4 5

73. How much profit did the business earn in this year.
I. The profit is 15% of the Capital
II. The Capital is 15 times the profit.

1 2 3 4 5

74. Only one of P, Q & R are zero. Which one is it?
I. P( p – q ) = 0
II. P( p + q) = q ( p + r )

1 2 3 4 5

75. What is the value of 2A + 3B
I. A + 3B = 60
II. A is 2 times B

1 2 3 4 5

76. What is the probability that India will win the final world cup ?
A. Probabilities of India beating Pakistan is 0.5.
B. Probabilities of India reaching the final is 0.4

1 2 3 4 5

77. What drips from a tap @ 3 drops in every 2 seconds. The dripped water in collected in a cylindrical Vessel of height 5 cm & diameter 10 cm . How much water was collected in 2 hours.
A. Volume of cylindrical vessel = 300 cm ³
B.Volume of one drop = 0.4 cm ³

1 2 3 4 5

78. In the number 27432 xy, find the unique values of x & y
A. The number is divisible by 9
B. The number is divisible by 8

1 2 3 4 5

79. In the expression x2 – 33x + a, find the value of a
A. If x = 2. The value of the expression becomes 5
B. The expression has got only 4 unique real factors

1 2 3 4 5

80. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 100m. The length of the field is increased by 5 m and its breadth decreased by 2 m. Find the original length of the field.
I. Area decrease by 60 m ²
II. Perimeter decreases by 5 m.

1 2 3 4 5

81. If the first term of an A.P is 4, find the sum of first 20 terms.
I. Sum of first five terms = 1 / 5 of the sum of next 5 terms
II. All the terms are (-) ve.

1 2 3 4 5

82. Rajesh sold a camera for Rs 600 which included a tax of 5% . What is his profit?
I. C.P. for Rajesh was Rs 400
II. Packing charges was Rs 10/shirt.

1 2 3 4 5

83. Two cylindrical cans have bases of the same size. Find the ratio of their volumes.
I. The diameter of each can is 10 cm.
II One of the cans is 5 cm high and the other 10 cm high.

1 2 3 4 5

84. In the LCM of x / y & p/q an integer.
I. x = p
II. y & q have no common factors

1 2 3 4 5

85. Are all Hindi films dubbed ?
I. All films are dubbed in Hindi
II. No film is dubbed in any other language

1 2 3 4 5

86. Does the class have an average above 50%
I. 50% of the class have an average above 60%
II. Total strength of the class in 250%

1 2 3 4 5

87. What is the % increase in b
I. b = a ² + x – 2
II. % increase in A is 5%

1 2 3 4 5

88. What is the volume of (a – b) ² - 2 ab / a – b
I. a = 2 –b
II. ab = 6

1 2 3 4 5

89. What % of a + b does b represent
I. I.a = 2b
II. II. a + b = 10

1 2 3 4 5

90. Is p > q
I. R / p = p + q
II. P > r

1 2 3 4 5

91. A sum of money becomes 30 / 14 times itself in 10 years. The rate of S. I. Is

11.4 % 15% 12.3% 14.5%

92. A buys an orange from B for Rs 4 and sells it to c for Rs. 8. He later buys the orange back from c for Rs. 12 and sells it to B for Rs 16. What is his profit over the venture.

Rs. 8 Rs. 4 Rs. 24 No profit.

93. A buys Sugar @ Rs. 20 per kg and prices it so as to earn a profit of 20%. However his balance is Faulty and shows 800 gms when it is actually 1000 gms. What is his actual profit margin.

24% 20% 15% 12%

94.2, 10, 28, 54,____

88, 80, 101, 62

95. The monthly expenses at IIM are partly constant & partly vary directly as the no. of inmates. If the expenses are Rs 4000 when no. of inmates is 240 & Rs 3200 when no. of inmates is 200 . Then no. of imnates when expense is Rs 3760 are

148 135 128 156

96. How much of 200 Rs / kg type tea should be mixed with 12 kg of 100 Rs / kg type tea to make 160 Rs / kg of branded tea ?

18 20 25 32

97. After selling a chain Ram found that he had made a loss of 20% had he sold it for Rs 54 more, he Would have made a profit of 10% his the actual loss was

Rs 36 Rs 30 Rs 18 Rs 50

98. What is 1.99 * 2.01 / 0. 001

3.9999 398.99 3989.9 none of these.

99. Complete the series 12, 24, 48, 96, _____

192 256 26 88

100. 4 , 9, 25, 49, _____

64 81 100 121

101. A shopkeeper marks his goods to make a profit of 25%. But he allows 5% discount for cash payment. His profit on a cash transaction is

19.25 21.5 18.75 20

102. If we divide 444 in 3 parts such that 2 times the first is equal to 4 times the second and 9 times the Third then the three parts are in the ratio:

1 / 2 : 1 / 4 : 1 / 9 2: 4: 9 9:4:2 None of these.

103.The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular object are in the ratio 1:2:3 and its whole Surface area is 696 sq. cm. What is the length

10 cm 5 cm 15 cm 20 cm

104. A man is 40 years old and has 5 brothers born at equal intervals. The sum of the age of the man and brother is 180. What is the age of the eldest brother if the youngest is 4 years old.

37 years 42 years 68 years 72 years

105. Ashish has x Chocolates, First he gave y chocolates Amit. Then he gave 1 / 4 of what was left to Amrish. How much chocolates did Ashish have in the end.

1 / 2(x – y) x –y 3 / 4 ( x-y) 1 / 4 ( x – y)

106. A ball is dropped gently from a height of 100 Mts. After striking the floor it rebounds 4 / 5 of the Height from which it has fallen and continues this way and stops finally. The total distance travelled by the ball is _________ Mts.

900mts. 1000 Mts. 1200 Mts. 860 Mts.

107. If the probability that A will live 10 years is 5 / 6 and B will live 10 years in 7 / 8 what is the Probability that both will live after 10 years ?

1 / 12 35 / 48 61 / 23 49 / 79

108. What is the probability of obtaining a total of 10 points in a single throw with two dice.

1 / 10 1 / 13 1 / 18 2 / 17

109. Suppose 10 teachers are required in a college. If 4 are M.A’s and 10 doctorates apply for the Professorship, how many selections can be made taking all MA’s

210 222 340 720

110. How many squares can be formed by joining the points of a decagon ?

130 110 120 105

111. In 40 litres of a mixture of milk and water, the ratio of the constituents in the above order is 6:4.To make their ratio 4:6, ________ litres of water must be added to the mixture.

10 20 30 40

112. If the price of sugar rises by 10 per cent, a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar by _________Percent so as not to increase his expenditure.

12 ½ 15 9 20.

113. In a college, there are 200 students in class XI, 250 in class X and 350 in class IX. The enrolment percentage of class XI is ____________ per cent of the total of all three classes.

20 22 ½ 25 30.

114. 12, 18, 30 litres are to be drawn from three vessels respectively. What is the exact capacity of measure which will do it most quickly ?

6 lit 7 lit 8 lit 11 lit.

115. Hari singh sold 1/4 of his estate, gave 2/3 of the remainder to his son and 1/3 of the balance to his daughter. His daughter’s share values Rs. 7,000. The value of the whole estate is…..

Rs. 84,000 Rs. 25,000 Rs.75,000 Rs. 1,50,000.

116. A man after allowing a trade discount of 20% from the marked price, makes a profit of 10%. His marked price will be -

27% above cost price 7% above cost price.
30% above cost price. None of these.

117. 1,250 mangoes were distributed among a group of children. Each child got twice as many mangoes as the number of boys in the group. The number of children in the group was…

25 45 50 625

118. A vendor sells 20 apples for a Rupee gaining there – by 50%. How many oranges did he buy for a Rupee ?

30 12 14 16

119. If no income-tax is charged on the first Rs. 3,000 of the income, how much does a man pay as income-tax at 3 P in the rupee, if his total income is Rs. 5,000 ?

Rs. 60 Rs.90 Rs.9 None of these.

120. A wholesaler allows a discount of 10% on cash payment. The value of the article for which the customer paid Rs. 180 is-

Rs. 212 Rs. 188 Rs.200 none of these.

121.A worker earns twice as much in May as in each of the other months. What part of the entire year’s earnings does she earn in May ?

2/13 2/11 1/6 4/13

122. During one year the population o f a town increased by 20% and during the next year it diminished by 20%. Then the population now is –

Same as in the beginning Greater than that in the beginning.
Less than that in the beginning. None of the above.

123. A garrison of 600 men had provisions for 20 days. However, reinforcement of 800 men arrived. The food will now last for….

18 days 15 days 17 ½ days 16 days.

124. A is 5 km. ahead of B. The speeds of A & B are 2 and 3 km/hr respectively. B will over take A in……..

5 hr. 1 hr 20 min. 4 hr. 48 min.

125. Nitin drives his car to his office at aspeed of 50 km/h. And returns along the same route at a speed of 70 km/h. His average speed for the entire round trip is ______km/h.

58.3 68.6 54 None of above.

126. Walking 4/5 of his usual speed, a man is 15 minutes late. His usual time to cover that distance is _______ .

43 min 1hour 2hours 120 min.

127. A man loses 1 /4 of his money then wins Rs 20 loses 1/ 2 of what he has & wins Rs 30. He Finds that he has exactly what he had at the beginning. What was the amount he originally had.

Rs 64 Rs 68 Rs 70 Rs 85

128. Complete the given series 16, 54, 128, 250, __________

432 256 625 450

129. Series 1, 4, 27, 256, ________

225 3125 625 400

130. 0 , 4 , 48 , 180, _________

448 658 450 498

131. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased in the ratio of 5 : 6 and 2 : 3 . What is the Ratio of the old area to the new one

5 : 9 2 : 3 4 : 7 7 : 4

132. Three containers have same volume . The ratios of milk & water in the 3 containers is 2 : 3. 5 : 6, & 7 : 4 respectively. If the milk of all the three jars is mixed , the find the ratio of milk and water in the mixture

81 : 82 7 : 11 82 : 83 4: 7

133. A person can save only 8% of his income . Five years hence his income is increased by 20% and he still saves the same amount find the increase % in his expenditure.

18.62 20.66% 22% 21.74

134. The population of a town increased by 4% but it would have been 3600 more if there had been a increase of 2%. Find the original population.

60, 000 45, 000 54,000 55, 000

135.The tax on a commodity is diminished by 5% and its consumption increased by 15% . Find the Increase percent in the revenue derive from it.

8.75% 10% 9.25% 8%

136.The average weight of 5 people in a ship is increased by 1 kg , when one of the crew, who weight 50 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of the new man?

55 kg 60 kg 75 kg 50 kg

137. In a race, x beats y by 40 meters, or 14 seconds. Find X's time over the course.

336 sec 350 sec 300 sec 420 sec.

138. X sells 6 horses and buys 9 Cows, thus in creasing his cash by Rs 90. He then at the same prices buys 9 horses and sells 15 Cows, thus decreasing his cash by Rs 91. Find the price of each Cow.Assume he had nil balance at the start.

Rs 123 Rs 150 Rs 175 Rs 200

139. If X gives Y Rs 8 , Y will have twice as much as, X, if Y gives X Rs 30, X will have 10
times as much as y. How much does each have?

RS 30 & RS 36 Rs 40 & 45 RS 35 & RS 50 None of these

140. A gardener planted 104329 trees in a square. Find the number of rows

321 323 327 233

Directions for questions 141 to 144
Refer to the data given below and answer the questions

% Increase in share prices( Aug 16-Sept 6 1990)

141.What was L&T's share price on Aug 16, if its share price on Sept 6 was Rs 150?

Rs105.6 Rs108.5 Rs110 Rs125

142. If I had bought Bombay Dyeing at Rs 400 on Aug 16th, what is its price on Sept 6?

Rs688 Rs725 Rs250 None of these

143. What will be the share price of Godrej on Oct 6th be, if it falls by 15% from Sept 6 till Oct 6?

Rs 250 Rs 263 Rs725 Cannot be determined

144. Which company shows the maximum rise?

Godrej L & T Orient Cement Bombay Dyeing

Directions: For questions 145 to 150 refer to the data given below
Number of license holders in the different sectors

145. What is the difference in the total number of licenses issued to all the mentioned industries between 1983-1984

25 50 75 None of these

146.Which of the industries has the lowest increase in the number of licenses issued

Power Pharma Oil & gas FMCG

147. In which year did the Power sector record the highest growth in license holders

1982 1983 1984 1985

148. The year in which the FMCG industry recorded no growth was

1982 1983 1984 1985

149. The average cost of setting up a new power unit is Rs.10lacs while maintaing an existing one cost Rs1 lac, what was the average expenditure of a power unit in in the year 1983

350 lacs 2.8 lacs 225 lacs 65 lacs

150. In 1985, the government came up with a scheme in the Pharma sector, to apply for a license, which would be issued only after a year, the stamp duty would amount to Rs2000 and the NOC cost was Rs1000. How much did the government earn on account of this in 1985?

1 lac 3 lacs 4 lacs cannot be determined

Passage –1

Ian Fleming’s evil globe-fish – also known as puffer, blowfish, swellfish, or in Japanese, fugu – is one of the most mysterious creatures of the sea. It is perhaps the world’s most deadly fish, yet in Japan the honorable fugu is the epitome of gourmet dining.

About 100 species of puffers in several closely related families can be found throughout the world. Their most obvious characteristic is their ability to balloon out from a reasonable fish shape into a sphere two or three times large. When frightened, excited, or annoyed, they gulp water, or even air, into a sac on the belly. It swells inside their tough, elastic skin, like an inner tube inside a tire, so as to discourage predators or intimidate rivals. When the fish feels safe, it squirts out the water or releases the air, deflating to its normal shape.

In Japan, eating fugu has been the gastronomic version of Russian roulette for centuries. Sometimes a diner stills losses the gamble. His chopsticks clatter to the table from nerveless fingers; he pales; his breathing labours. It is often the subject of traditional senryu verse. Last night he and I ate fugu;
Today, I help carry his coffin
"It’s a terrible death," a Japanese restaurant owner told me. "Even though you can think very clearly, your arms and legs become numb. It becomes impossible to sit up. You can think but cannot speak, cannot move, and soon cannot breathe."

Why the Japanese, who venerate hygiene, should make a ritual of eating deadly poisonous fish, is difficult for foreigners to comprehend. fugu ovaries, intestine, and liver can be so deadly that if even a tiny touch of them is left in the flesh, the gourmet dies, often within minutes. About 60 percent of puffer poisonings prove fatal.

When eating fugu, the diner puts his life in the hands of the chef. Before practicing their risky art, all fugu cooks must be licensed and must take intensive courses, extensive apprenticeship, and written exams.

To eat fugu liver is the height of exotica. It is one of the most poisonous parts of the fish, and techniques for detoxifying it are not dependable. Chefs are prohibited from serving fugu liver, but they sometimes relent under the impassioned pleas of gourmets. Mitsugoro Bando had four servings and paid the ultimate price.

Despite the danger, demand for puffers is increasing so fast that the Japanese fishing grounds are being depleted. Today the Japanese are successfully culturing the fish.

Every year from October through March, millions of diners bet their lives on not getting fatally poisoned. Thanks to strict regulation of restaurants and wholesalers, the number that loses decreases each year. But this droll and perposterous fish with the goggling eyes, swollen belly, and floppy fins remains the world’s most deadly feast. The enigma of the fugu is summed up in the traditional verse:
Those who eat fugu soap are stupid

But whose who don’t eat fugu soup are also stupid.

151. A fugu eater is likely to lose his life

Almost always sometimes often rarely.

152. All the following are the symptoms of fugu poisoning except, not being able to

speak think move breathe.

153. Of the least poisonous parts of fugu is/are its

ovaries intestines heart liver.

154. Of those affected by fugu poisoning, the survival rate is about.

50% 60% 30% 40%

155. The height of fugu season is during the

summer rainy season spring winter

156. What the traditional verse really implies is

wise people eat fugu soup wise people don’t eat fugu soup.
[1] and [2] none of the above.

Passage – 2

A majority of scientists now agree that the "ozone hole" developed over the Antarctica due to the greatly increased use of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Though they were regarded as chemically inert materials, under conditions in the atmosphere with intense solar radiation CFCs have reacted with ozone. As the chlorine oxide amounts increased,, the ozone amount in the stratosphere (which protect the earth from the sun’s ultraviolet radiation) fell. A wide range of effects through "ozone hole" was expected: skin cancers, damage to crops and animals and changes in the worlds weather patterns. Some international agreements including the Earth Summit (1992) contain provisions to reduce the release of CFSs and other harmful chemicals drastically by 2000 AD. The limit set by the European Union include complete phasing out by 1994 of Halons, the range of compounds containing Bromine used in fire extinguishers, as these are considered very harmful to atmospheric ozone. The heightened awareness in recent years keep earth’s environment free of pollutants has produced one salutary effect in the form of two innovations: (1) the first CFC-free refrigerator made by a German firm DKK in 1992, using propane and butane as the coolant and pentane for the insulating foam (2)New engine fitted to jet aircraft to generate less oxides of nitrogen (NOX) which are damaging to ozone.

157. the European Union envisaged

the total ban on CFC’s by 2000 AD.
The complete phasing out of Halons.
Increasing "Eco-system" awareness among the peoples in the European Union <1i>
all of the above.

158. All the following are damaging to Ozone except <>

Oxides of Nitrogen (NOX)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Bromine
Citric acid.

159. The development of the "ozone hole’ over Antarctica was mainly due to <>

increase in the level of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in the atmosphere.
Increase in the use of Oxides of Nitrogen.
Damage caused by humans (viz) construction, waste and fuel spillage.
Indiscriminate felling of trees

160. The harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation through the "ozone hole" are <>

storms and cyclones on the earth
skin cancers.
damage to crops and animals
[2] and [3] only.

Directions 161 to 164:
In each of the following questions two or more statements are given under X and Y respectively. These statements are followed by one inference each. Find out, on the basis of the statements,
(1), if the conclusion in respect of 'X' only is correct.
(2) if the conclusion in respect of 'Y' only is correct.
(3) If the conclusions in respect of 'X' as well as 'Y' are correct.
(4) if both conclusions in respect of 'X' and 'Y' are incorrect.

161. X. All pilots are men. No woman is pilot. Therefore no woman is pilot.
Y. Some pilots are men. Some women are pilots. Therefore some women are men.

1 2 3 4

162. X. No morning is night. No morning is noon. Therefore no noon is night.
Y. No night is morning. No noon is morning. Therefore no noon is night.

1 2 3 4

163. X. Some novels are friends. All novels are pens.Therefore some pens are friends.
Y. All pens are novels. Some friends are novels. Therefore some friends are pens.

1 2 3 4

164. X. All gold glitters. All diamonds glitter. Therefore all gold is diamond.
Y. All gold glitters. All diamonds glitter. Therefore all that glitters is gold or diamond.

1 2 3 4

Directions165 to 169: Pick out from the answer-choices the premiss which will complete the argument.

165. Friendship is beneficial because friends share sorrows.

Only those who share sorrows are beneficial.
All who share sorrows are beneficial.
Some who share sorrows are beneficial.
Some who do not share sorrows are beneficial.

166. People laugh because they are happy.

All who laugh are happy.
All the happy laugh.
Only the happy laugh.
None of these.

167.Tea is harmful because all stimulants are harmful.

Tea is a stimulant.
Only Tea is a stimulant.
Some stimulants are harmful.
Some harmful drinks are stimulants.

168.Politicians are corrupt because they are selfish.

Only selfish are corrupt.
All selfish are corrupt.
Some selfish are corrupt.
Some corrupt are selfish.

169. China is manufacturing a nuclear bomb, so China is not peace loving

All countries which manufacture nuclear weapons are not peace loving.
No peace loving country manufactures nuclear weapons.
Some peace loving countries do not manufacture nuclear weapons.
All peace loving countries manufacture nuclear weapons.

Directions for questions 170 to 176:
In the following questions one statement is followed by two possible implications. Study the and mark one of the following answer choices:
(a), Statement 1 is implied.
(b), Statement 2 is implied.
(c), Both the statements are implied.
(d), Both the statements are not implied.

170. The import bill is mounting day by day.
1. Goods are being imported.
2.Mounting bills are dangerous.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

171.Those who neglect tomorrow repeat the mistakes of yesterday.
1. By not thinking about future we forget the past.
2. Our past is replete with mistakes.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

172.He that runs fast will not run long.
1. Running exhausts a person.
2. Running fast is not good.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

173. It is never too late to mend.
1. Mending is necessary.
2. Man can mend himself at any time in life.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

174. Science has come to stay in this country.
1. In earlier years the position of science was quite shaky.
2. The country has adopted science.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

175.Wood is the most valuable building material because it is durable and strong.
1. In addition to wood there are other building materials.
2. Wood is durable.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

176. Dental infection is still the most common human disease.
1. Dental infection is a disease.
2. Dental infection is an old disease.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions 177 to 185 :
Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

177.1. All M is P
2. No S is M
3. No S is P
4.Some S is not P
5.No P is M
6. Some M is S

564 123 231 254

178. 1. All writers are intelligent.
2. No intelligent people are publishers.
3. Some writers are publishers.
4. Some publishers are intelligent.
5. No writer is a publisher.
6. No publisher is a writer.

123 126 256 341

179.1.Some college students are artists.
2. Some artists are singers.
3. All singers are artists.
4. Some singers are college students.
5. All college students are singers.
6. Some artists are not singers.

143 351 341 461

180 1. Some MBAs are managers.
2. Some managers are singers.
3. All managers are MBAs
4. Some singers are not MBAs.
5. No MBA is a singer.
6. Some managers are not singers.

124 356 325 516

181. 1. Some judges are lawyers.
2. All judges are liars.
3. Some lawyers are liars.
4. All judges are lawyers.
5. Some liars are lawyers.
6. All lawyers are liars.

132 642 234 452

182. 1. All fair persons are kind.
2. Some tall persons are not kind.
3. All tall persons are kind.
4. Some kind persons are not fair.
5. No tall persons is fair.
6. Some tall persons are not fair.

126 234 243 456

183.1.All Maharashtrians are Vegetarians.
2. Some Vegetarians are Maharashtrians.
3. All Vegetarians have long life.
4. No Maharashtrian has long life.
5. All Maharashtrian have long life.
6. Some people who have long life are not Vegetarian.

235 315 351 264

184.1.Some great thinkers think logically.
2. All great thinkers are intelligent.
3. Some people who think logically are not great thinkers.
4. Some intelligent people think logically.
5. All intelligent people are great thinkers .
6. Some intelligent people are great thinkers.

461 124 346 543

185.1. No plant found in the Garden is useless.
2. Rose is a useful plant.
3. All rose plants are found in the Garden.
4. No useless plants are rose plants
5. All useful plants are found in the Garden..
6. Some rose plants are found in the Garden.

352 314 142 154.