CAT DECEMBER 2001

CAT DECEMBER 2001

Q.2 A ladder lies against a wall. The top of the ladder reaches 8 ft. above the ground. When the ladder slips two metres away from the wall, the top of the ladder touches the foot of the wall. The length of the ladder is
1) 15 2) 17 3) 8 4) 10
Q.3 A takes 4 days to do a work. B takes twice as long as A. C takes twice as long as B and D takes twice as long as C. They are made in groups of two. One of the groups takes two third of the time taken by second pair. What is the combination of the first pair?
1) A,C 2) A,D 3) B,C 4) B,D
Q.4 A student got marks in the ratio 6:7:8:9:10 in five subjects having equal maximum marks. In all, he scored 60% marks. In how many subjects, he got more than 50% ?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) None of these
Q.5 What is the least value of x for which expression x3 – 7x2 + 11x – 5 gives positive quantity?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 8 4) None of these
Q.9 Ram is having 158 coins of one rupee. He puts it in different bags, so that he can hand over the cash of any denomination required between Rs. 1 to Rs. 158. What is the least no. of bags required ?
1) 11 2) 13 3) 15 4) None of these
Q.10 Train X starts from A towards B. At same time, train Y start from B towards A. Train X travels at speed of 70 kmph and Y travels at 50 kmph. While X does not stop anywhere on the way, the train Y stops at station C in between at 60km from B for 15 minutes. At what distance from A they would meet
1) 115km 2) 112km 3) 120km 4) None of these
Q.11 There are three classes X,Y and Z. Average of class X is 83. Average of Class Y is 76. Average of class Z is 85. Average of class X and Y is 79, average of class Y and Z is 81. Find average of three Classes.
1) 81 2) 81.5 3) 82 4) 84
Q.12 There are five nos. a,b,c,d,e having value of 2,5,6,10,4, not necessarily in this order. We have following clues
1) c + a = e 2) e + a = d 3) b-d = d
Which of the following is true ?
1) 10-5 = b-d 2) 4 + 6 = a+e 3) 4-2 = b-d 4) None of these.
Q.13 How many 5 digit different nos. can be formed which is divisible by 4 from the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6 without repetition.
1)144 2)168 3)192 4)None of these
Q.14 All the pages of a book starting from page 1 are summed. One of the pages has been added twice, and the total thus obtained is 1000. Which is the page that has been added twice ?
1) 10 2) 12 3) 14 4) None of these.
Q.15 In a certain system product of 44 X 11 is represented as 2124 find how 1453 can be represented in decimal system ?
1)248 2) 346 3) 393 4) 410
Q.16 All positive consecutive integers starting from 1 were written on the blackboard. One of the students entered the class and erased one of the numbers. Now the average of the remaining numbers is 35 7/17.The erased number is _______.
1)17 2)8 3)9 4)None of these
Q.18 In a four digit number, the sum of digits in the first and fourth place is twice the sum of the digits in the third and fourth place. The difference in the first and third digit is equal to the second digit. What is the digit in the third place?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 1
Q.19 A person had to multiply two numbers. Instead of multiplying by 35, the person multiplied by 53, and the product went up by 540.What was the raised product?
1) 780 2) 1040 3) 1590 4) None of these
Q.20 Euclid had a triangle in his mind .The longest side is 20 and the other side is 10.Area of the triangle is 80.The third side is__
1) root 260 2) root 240 3) root 250 4)root 210
Q.21 09/12/2001 is Sunday. What was the day on 09/12/9071?
1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Saturday 4) Sunday
Q.22 In a fibonacci series, difference between squares of 6th and 7th terms was 517. What is the 8th term.
1) 32 2) 65 3) 83 4) None of these
Q.23 There is a circular field having four doors in North, East, West and South. A person walks 3 meters from the North door. Another person comes out of the South door and walks 9 meter towards East so that he is just able to see the first man. What is the diameter of the field.
1) 12 2) 15 3) 9 4) None of these.
Q.25 Ram has 128 boxes with him. He has to put atleast 120 oranges in one box and 144 at the most. Find the least number of boxes which will have the same number of oranges.
1) 5 2) 6 3) 103 4) Can’t determine.
Q.26 There are two persons A and B who joined an organization on 1st Jan 1970. A joined at Rs. 300 and annual increment of Rs.30. B gets salary of Rs. 200 and hike of Rs. 50 per six month. Find the total amount distributed at the end of 31st December 1979.
1) 91200 2) 92800 3) 97200 4) None of these
Q.29 If X and Y are positive integers and X + Y = 1, what is the least value of
(X + 1/X)2 + (Y+1/Y)2 ?
1) 24 2) 12.5 3) 20 4) None of these
Q.30 2<3 and –7<-8, which of the following is minimum ?
1) XY2 2) X2Y 3) 5XY 4) None of these
Q.31 Rs. 960 is formed with denominations of Rs. 5, Rs. 2, Re. 1 coins. If the no. of coins Rs 2 and Re 1 are interchanged then the amount varies by Rs. 40. If the total no. of coins are 300, find the no. of coins of Rs. 5.
1)100 2)140 3) 60 4)None of these
Q. 32 If a=b2 - b, b ³ 4 ,then a2 -2a is always divisible by__
1) 15 2) 20 3) 24 4) None of these
Q.33 A shopkeeper increases the selling price of his articles by 10% and then reduces it by 10%.Again he does the same thing. Finally the selling price of the articles comes down to 1944.75.What was the original selling price.
1) 1984.75 2) 2000 3) 2500 4) 2148.75
Q.34 a,b,c,d are non Zero real numbers. If a is > b and c> d and abcd =1 ,then which of the following is correct?
1) bd ³ ac 2) a+c > b+d 3) a2 b
Q.35 There are two lights. The first light blinks 3 times per minute while the other blinks 5 times in two minutes. Find the no. of times they will blink together in an hour.
1) 20 2) 30 3) 60 4) None of these
Q.36 In a shop, cost of 3 burgers, 7 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 120. In the same shop, cost of 4 burgers, 10 milkshake and french fries is Rs. 164.5. Find the cost of 1 Burger, 1 Milkshake and french fries in the shop.
1) 41 2) 21 3) 31 4) None of these
Q.37 Fresh grapes contain 90% water, dry grapes contain 20% water. From 20 Kg fresh grapes, How many Kg of dry grape can be obtain ?
1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.2 4) None of these
Q.38 x > 5 and y < -1. Which of the following is true ?
1) x2y >1 2) 4x > 5y 3) –4x < 5y 4) None of these
Q.39 x,y and z are integers, x and y are positive odd and z is positive even integers then which is even ?
1) (x-z)2y > 0 2) (x-z)y2 > 0 3) (x-y)2z > 0 4) None of these
Q.40 There is a rectangular field of length 60 m and width 20 m. A path of uniform width and area 516 sq m surrounds the field. Find the width of path
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Q.41 If abcd = 1 then the minimum value of (1+a)(1+b) (1+c) (1+d) is __________
1) 8 2) 16 3) 4 4) None of these
Q no.42 -44 are based on the following data:
A player X played an inning such that
r1=Scores of completed innings.
r2=Scores of incomplete innings.
n1= number of completed innings.
n2=number of incomplete innings.
B=r1+r2 / n1 C=r1/n1 + max { 0,r2-r1/n2}
D= r1+r2/ n1+n2
Q.42 Which of the following holds?
1) C ³ B ³ D 2) D ³ B ³ C 3) B ³ C ³ D 4) None of these.
Q.43 If B=100 and in next innings he scored 45 not out, then which of the following holds?
1) B>C 2) C>B 3) C>D 4) None of these
Q.44 If total number of matches played were 20 and the score was 620,which of the following is true?
1) B=31 2) D=31 3) C>D 4) None of these.
Q.45 What is the minimum value of value of x for which the expression x3-5x2+11x-5 gives positive values?
1) 5 2) 8 3) 4 4) None of these.
Q.46 One boy while solving a Quadratic equation takes the constant term wrong and gets the roots (4,3). Another boy takes the coefficient of x wrong and gets the roots (2,3). What are the actual roots?
1) (6,1) 2) (-4,3) 3) (2,-3) 4) None of these.
Q.47 If A,B,C are running a race A beats B by 12m while B beats C by 8 m. What is the length of the track ?
1) 48 2) 30 3) 50 4) None of these.
Q.48 The difference in the money between A and B is Rs.1450.C has money twice of B and difference in the money between A and C is Rs.700.So the amount with A is?
1) 750 Rs. 2) 2200Rs. 3) 800Rs. 4) None of these.
Q.49 P, Q and S are moving on a circular stadium of circumference 2100 m. When P completes one round, Q is still 700 m behind. When S completes one round, Q is 300 m ahead of him. How far from the starting point three of them will meet for the first time ?
1) 168 2) 2568 3) 2100 4) None of these
Q.50 x, y, z are distinct integers such as x is positive, y is lesser than x and z is more than x and y. Then which of the following is true ?
1) x y³ 0 2) x-y > 0 3) x y z >0 4) None of these



1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (2)
4. (1)
5. (4)
6. (1)
7. (1)
8. (4)
9. (4)
10. (2)
11. (2)
12. (3)
13. (3)
14.(1)
15.(3)
16.(4)
17.(2)
18.(2)
19.(3)
20. (1)
21.(1)
22.(4)
23. (3)
24. (3)
25. (4)
26. (4)
27. (2)
28. (1)
29. (2)
30.(3)
31. (2)
32. (4)
33. (1)
34. (2)
35. (2)
36. (4)
37. (2)
38. (3)
39. (3)
40.(3)
41. (2)
42. (3)
43. (1)
44. (2)
45. (4)
46. (1)
47. (1)
48. (2)
49. (1)
50.(2)

2) 15



















3) 20



















4) 10





























Directions for Qns. 27 to 30. The first pie-chart gives in percentage the quantity of oil carried through different modes of transportation. The total quantity of oil transported is 12 million tonnes. The second pie-chart gives in percentage the cost involved for transportation of oil for different modes. The total cost involved is Rs. 30 million.










Q.27 What is the cost of transportation per tonne through roads (in Rs.)?













(1)1 (2)1.5 (3)0.5 (4)2




























Q.28 The minimum cost of transportation is through which means ?













(1)Rail (2)Road (3)Ship (4)Pipeline.


























Q.29 The maximum cost of transportation is through which means ?













(1)Air (2)Ship (3)Rail (4)Pipeline.



























Q.30. If P, Q, R denotes the cost per tonne for transportation through pipeline, ship and road respectively, then which of the following order is correct ?












(1) P>R>Q (2) Q>P>R (3) R>Q>P (4) P>Q>R

























Directions for Qns. 31 to 34. The following two bar graphs gives the breakup of man-work hours for a software company. The first bar graph gives the offshore and onsite man-work hours for three different work-activities of the organization. The second bar graph gives the offshore man-work hours for the same 3 activities.










Q.31 Of the total work hours involved , what percent was devoted to Coding ?













(1)55% (2)45% (3)65% (4)60%



























Q.32 If 50% of the offshore coding hours is equally distributed among the onsite activities, then which of the










following is true.


















(1)Onsite design hours becomes almost equal to offshore coding hours.













(2)Onsite design hours becomes less than offshore coding hours.














(3)Onsite testing hours become less than offshore coding hours.














(4)Onsite coding hours become less than offshore coding hours.
























Q.33 The actual hours devoted to offshore design falls short of the estimated offshore design hours by how










much percent.


















(1)15% (2)10% (c)20% (d)30%



























Q.34. The total onsite hours devoted to testing and design corresponds to which of the following?











(1)It is more than the offshore coding hours.
















(2)It is more than the onshore coding hours.
















(3)It is less than the estimated offshore testing and design hours.














(4)It is more than the estimated offshore testing and design hours.
























Directions:



















Amit wants to see some plays. There are six plays going on. Amit wants to see all of them, as well as take a lunch break for one hour from 12:30p.m tp 1:30p.m. The names of the plays, their durations and timings are all mentioned in the following table.










Number
Play
Duration
Timings
















1
Sati Savitri
1 hour
9:00a.m, 2:00 p.m















2
Tipu Sultan
1 hour
10:00a.m, 11:00 a.m















3
Sundar Kand
30 minutes
10:30 a.m , 2:30 p.m















4
Hayavardhana
1 hour
10:00 a.m, 11:00 a.m















5
Nagamandala
1 hour
11:00 a.m 2:00 p.m















6
Jhansi ki Rani
30 minutes
10:30 a.m, 1:30 p.m

























Q.35 Which is the best possible plan for Amit.















(1). Sundar Kand first, Jhansi Ki Rani third, Tipu Sultan fifth.














(2) Sati Savitri first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth.














(3) Jhansi ki Rani first, Nagamandala third, Sundar Kand fifth.














(4) None of the above




























Directions:



















Elle is three times Yogesh.

















Zahir is half Wahida


















Zahir is younger than Yogesh.



























Q.36. Which of the following are necessary to find the age of each.














(1). Wahida is same age as that of Yogesh.
















(2). Age of Zahir is ten.

















(3). Both are required.


















(4). None of these




























Q. 37. Which of the following is true?
















(1). Elle is the eldest.


















(2) Wahida can be elder to Elle

















(3) Wahida is eldert to Yogesh

















(4) None of the above




























Directions:



















Peter owned a butcher’s shop. In Peter’s absence, a dog ran away with a piece of meat. When Peter returned, the other shopkeepers, who were jealous of him, gave two statements each, one of which was a lie.










Ist Shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had no collar.















2nd shopkeeper: The dog was black. It had a short tail.















3rd shopkeeper: The dog was white. It had a collar.

























Q. 38 Therefore, the dog

















(1). Was white with a short tail and no collar.















(2) was black with a long tail and a collar.
















(3) was black with a short tail and a collar.
















(4) was white with a long tail and no collar.


























Directions: Certain sets are defined as follows.















If A is a set of all mothers and B is a set of all women, then, C =A.B represents all women who are mothers. D = AÈ B represents all elements that are either in A or in B or in both. If there are no women who are mothers, then, A.B = f , where f is a null set.










V is set of Vertebrates, F is the set of Fish, D is the set of Dogs, P is Pluto, M is the set of Mammals, A is the set of Alsatians.
























Q 39. If X = M.D and X = D, then, which of the following is true?














(1) All dogs are mammals

















(2) Some dogs are mammals

















(3) All mammals are dogs

















(4) None of the above




























Q 40. If P.D = f and P È D = M, then, which of the following is true?













(1) Pluto or any of the dogs are mammals.
















(2) Pluto and dogs are mammals

















(3) Pluto is a dog and is a mammal.
















(4) None of the above.




























Q 41. If P È D = A


















(1) All dogs are Alsatians

















(2) Pluto is an Alsatian

















(3) No dog is an Alsatian

















(4) Either (1) or (2).






































There are 3 families…….Bannerjees, Guptas and Sharmas.Each family has a feast every Sunday at different timings of 12:00 , 1:00 and 2:00.Each family eats different dishes and uses different coloured dinner sets.










The Bannerjees eat sambhar but not in the red dinner set.














The last family does not eat karela or brinjal.
















The other dinner sets are yellow and blue in colour.















The Guptas use the yellow dinner set.




































Q 42. Which of the following is true ?
















1) The Bannerjees eat at 12.

















2) The last family eats sambhar in the blue dinner set.















3) The Guptas eat karela in the yellow dinner set.















4) None of these.






































Back to top


















ANSWERS KEY:


















1. 3
2. 4
3.3
4. 4
5. 3
6. 1
7. 4
8. 3
9. 4
10.3










11. 1
12. 1
13. 4
14. 1
15. 2
16. 3
17. 4
18. 1
19.2
20. 4










21. 2
22. 4
23. 2
24. 2
25. 1
26. 2
27. 2
28. 2
29. 1
30. 2










31. 1
32. 1
33. 2
34. 3
35. 2
36. 3
37. 4
38. 1
39. 1
40. 1










41. 4
42.2
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50










Doing a number of tests paid off. I know doing these tests caused much discomfort as scores were not able to cross 70 or so. But then the actual CAT turned out just like some of our papers, maybe a little easier.

The paper was easier than expected, but then the questions were not straightforward. They required some thought and needed some calculations. The verbal section threw a surprise, but an easy one at that. The passages in reading comprehension were also attemptible.

Once again, CAT looked for mental toughness, or, the ability to perform under pressure. What is one to do when each question is a challenge of sorts? When one is aware of the clock ticking away, the pressure mounts and one is tempted to make blind guesses. Hopefully, CAT aspirants did not make that mistake.

First, let me look at the pattern of the paper. The pattern was very much expected: 3 sections, 150 questions. So children used to a pattern of 3 sections were comfortable. The number of questions is decreasing with the years: I remember the times when CAT had 240 questions. One can be rest assured that in future it will have 150 questions, or even lesser number of questions.

The Verbal Section had a mix of comprehension and English; and the surprise was that there was some direct vocabulary this time. Fortunately the words were all from our wordlists: parsimonious, mellow, disuse, facetious, and the like. The difference was that this time dictionary usage was given and one had to pick out the choice which was not part of the usage. Children who had done our word exercises were definitely at an advantage, since not a single word was asked that we had not done in class. Some of the questions were expected: parajumbles though this time there were ABCDE and even ABCDEF, that is sentence arrangement of 5 or 6 sentences.

The passages too were more or less expected: There were 6 of them, on the following topics:
1) Racial Discrimination,
2) History of Universe,
3) Children’s phonetic skills,
4) Billy Holiday,
5) Kurusawa’s characters, and
6) Democracy.
The number of questions per passage were slightly less, and there were a total of 30 questions on comprehension. There was no technical passage this time.

The Maths section had some surprises too. No questions on functions, or higher maths. This time there was some arithmetic, with some direct questions. The question on dry grapes was asked (answer 2.5!) as also one on roots. Fortunately we had done many such questions. Surprise, there was also a question on calendars this time (find the day on 9 Dec 1971) and something on averages. On the whole, the section was attemptible though, as I said before, there was need for calculation and one should not have hurried. There were some questions on umber systems as well. The idea was to keep cool and keep attempting the questions you knew. The tendency in these type or papers is to lose patience and mark blindly, in the hope that some will be right at least. This is terrible. So, even if you were able to do just 10-20 questions out of 55, that was all right. At least they would be right. I have always been saying that no matter how difficult the paper, there will always be 10-15 questions which you can do. The same applied this year too.

The DI section was comparatively easier. Some sets were quite difficult but others were easy. The question on Data Sufficiency were relatively simple, though some graphs required some calculations. This section was comparatively easy. The questions on Reasoning were scary, since they were stand-alone questions, but some of these should also have been attempted.

What could have been done in such a paper? Depending on your area of strength, you should have started with Maths or Verbal, done the easy questions and sailed through, avoiding the speed breakers. The first round should have seen you spot at least 15 questions in Maths, another 15 in Verbal and 12-15 in Data. One to two passages in Comprehension should have been attempted in the first round. Having done 50 questions or so, your confidence would have been gained and then you should have attempted the rest of the questions, taking each one separately and figured out the logic.

The paper was certainly not for people who had not done difficult type of tests, nor for the guess-makers. Thought was needed on each and every question; the paper could not have been done in a hurry. Some questions required quick wits -- again this would be difficult if one was tense. But I wonder if students were able to spot the completely easy ones.

Children who gave the CAT this year have brought in a large number of questions. We should be able to offer the complete paper in a few days.

It is being said that the score for IIMs this year would be 70+. I am sure that students who did the paper intelligently, will be able to reach that score. However, in such a paper, the number of attempts is no criteria for judging one’s performance. What matters is whether it was a balanced score and whether one was able to control the number of mistakes.
:

1. CAT is finally out of the Bag. 9 Dec 2001 (the D Day) finally arrived. Before the exam, outside exam Hall, various guess work by students on No. of sections, questions, Difficulty level etc. was the order of the Day. Finally at 12.30 p.m., the CAT was over. Mixed reaction could be observed on the faces of the students. The PAPER was on similar pattern of last year viz. 3 sections, but this year only 150 questions, 2 hour paper without any sectional time limits. There were not many SURPRISES.
2. By and large, students felt that Quantitative Ability (QA) section was comparatively simpler. The English Reading Comprehension (RCs) were comparatively tougher but apart from of a few questions remaining English and Data Interpretation (DI) questions were average.
3. Detailed Analysis of the respective sections is discussed below.
Outline of the Paper At a Glance
Section No.
Subject
No. of Questions.
1.
QA /Problem Solving
50
2.
English (RC & EU)
50
3.
DI & Data Sufficiency
( incl. 10 questions on analytical reasoning)
50
Total Questions
150
Detailed Analysis - Section - I ( QA )
Detailed Analysis - Quantitative Ability (QA) Section
Sr. No
Subject / Topic
No. of Questions
Difficulty Level / Remarks
1.
Arithmetic

Easy/Average/Difficult/Very Diff.
1a.
Number system
14
3
5
4
2
1b.
Averages
03

1
1
1
1c.
Percentages
03

1
2

1d.
SI & CI





1e.
Profit, Loss & Discount





1f.
Ratio and Proportion
02

1
1

1g.
Time, Speed and Distance
06
1
2
2
1
1h.
Work, Wages (Time & Work)
02
1
1


1i.
Calendars
01
1



1j.
General Arithmatics
01


1





2
Algebra


2a.
Permutation and Combination
1

1


2b.
linear and Quadratic Equation
7
1
3
1
2
2c.
Set Theory





2d.
Functions- Maxima /Minima
1


1

3.
Geometry & Mensuration
7
2
2
1
2
4.
Trigonometry
1


1

5.
Others
1


1

6.
Total
50






Comments and Analysis :
Overall the level of difficulty was average. Students found this to be surprising as it was speculated as a very difficult section. Format/contents of the questions were as follows :-
Six Questions:- Based on time and distance which also included a problem based on streams and another based on races and games. 2 of them were also based on a small graph representing amount of fuel consumed varying with the speed of the vehicle.
Two Questions:- Based on time and work were direct application on formulae
Seven Questions:- Based on Geometry and Mensuration were by and large simple and could be solved comparing the giving options.
Fourteen Questions:- Mainly number system, 1 on permutation & combination.
Eleven Questions:- Based on basic arithmetic and algebraic fundamentals, formulation of linear and Quadratic Equation.
Total Questions 50
Suggested Time Allotment for QA Section - 40 to 45 min
Suggested Questions Attempts - 40 Plus
Likely cut off score - 35 Plus
Detailed Analysis – Section - II ( RC & EU ) RC
1. Passage I
a) Subject - Narration of Film
b) Approx Words - 1000
c) Number of Questions - 6
d) Type of Questions - Specific questions mainly from the illustrative matter used in the passage.
e) Difficulty level - Average
f) Other related aspects & comments - The passage did not contain difficult vocabulary or language. However, the entire structure was soaked in the subject matter alone.
2. Passage II
a) Subject - An obituary of a single named Billie Holiday.
b) Approx Words - 800
c) Number of Questions - 4
d) Type of Questions - General questions by and large.
e) Difficulty level – Average
f) Other related aspects & comments - The passage was simple and interesting which helped to remember the contexts of the passage.
3. Passage III
a) Subject - U.N.Conference on racial and cast decimation.
b) Approx Words - 800
c) Number of Questions - 5
d) Type of Questions - Not straight abstractive from the passage.
e) Difficulty level - Difficult
f) Other related aspects & comments - Was a general topic but the questions were not direct abstraction from the passage.
4. Passage IV
a) Subject - Astronomy based passage-having concepts of Dark Age, big bank theory and quasars, etc.
b) Approx Words - 750
c) Number of Questions - 4
d) Type of Questions - By and large questions.
e) Difficulty level - Difficult
f) Other related aspects & comments - Technical language.
5. Passage V
a) Subject - Phonological skills in young children
b) Approx Words - 1200
c) Number of Questions - 6
d) Type of Questions - Could not be deducted from the passage directly.
e) Difficulty level - Difficult
f) Comments - Language was average but the passage contained a lot of obscurity.
6. Passage VI
a) Subject-Leadership and democracy.
b) Approx Words-750
c) Number of Questions-5
d) Type of Questions-Based on facts derived from the passage.
e) Difficulty Level-Difficult
f) Comments-Concept was general but the answers could not be derived easily from the passage.
7. General Comments: RC Passages
a) The passages were all reasonably lengthy (above 800 words).
b) Language was easy & simple. However, each passage had its own technical paths to tread.
c) Subjects range from very general to a very technical one.
d) Questions were not sequenced on any difficulty level.
e) Almost all questions had their answers drawn from the passages
8. English Usage :
Exercise Set I
a) Subject - Parajumbles ( 5 sentences type )
b) No. of. questions - 5
c) Difficulty Level - 3 problems – Average, 2 problems-Difficult.
Exercise Set – II
a) Contextual usages-Words to be phrased in properly to fit in the correct context.
b) No. of. Questions - 5
b) Difficulty Level - Average
Exercise Set III
a) Subject: Fill in the blanks
b) No. of Questions : 5
c) Type of Questions : There were 2 blanks in each sentence. The best alternative of a set of 2 words had to be chosen from among the four options given. e. g.
In these black and depressing times of ______________ prices, non performing governments and ___________________ crime rates, Sourav Ganguly has given us, Indians, a lot to cheer about.
1. escalating, increasing (Suggested Ans.)
2. spiraling, booming
3. spiraling, roaring
4. ascending , debilitating
c) Difficulty Level - Easy
Comments - It was relatively easy to arrive at the correct option by the process of elimination.
Exercise Set IV
a) Subject - Matching the Dictionary and usage based statements.
b) No of Questions - 5
c) Type of Questions - 2 Groups in vertical base were given, each having 5 sub-groups the first vertical group containing dictionary group meaning and the second corresponding group containing usage based statements were given to match with each other.
d) Difficulty Level - Average
RC & EU Section Over all comments :
10. Difficulty Level :
RC - difficult
EU – Easy / Average
11. Suggested Time Allotment RC & EU Section - 35 to 40 min.
12. Suggested Questions Attempts - 40 Plus
13.Likely cut off Score - 30 Plus.
Section - III

Detailed Analysis -- Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency Section
Ex. No.
Subject / Topic
No. of Questions
Difficulty Level/ Remarks
1
ONE TABULAR Data various airports with there codes, locations, passengers etc.
5
Easy/Average
2
ONE TABULAR Data of various types of garments in three different colors, each available in four different sizes.
4
Easy / Average
3
ONE SEGREGATED BAR DIAGRAM four bars each divided into five different segments representing the five different operations undertaken by four companies.
4
Difficult
4
ONE BAR DIAGRAM giving data on coding decoding and testing (Three stages in a software products life cycle).
6
Difficult
5
ONE PIE DIAGRAM containing 2 pies one giving transportation amount and another total transportation cost.
3
Average
6
ONE DIAGRAMATIC REPRESENTAION five cities connected through pipe lines. Problems based on demand and supply and also the capacity of the connecting pipe line.
4
Easy
7
Four Set theory based problems using concepts of intersection and union of the sets.
5
Average/Difficult
8
ANALYTICAL REASONING data given as a form of small passage which included relationship caselets, selection of groups age related problem etc.
10
Average
9
TABULAR DATA giving onsite and offsite options.
6
Difficult
9
DATA SUFFICIENCY
3
Easy /Average

TOTAL QUESTIONS :
50

10
Difficulty Level / Comments
:
Average/Difficult
11
Suggested Time Allotment for Section
:
40 minutes
12.
Suggested questions Attempt
:
40 Plus
13.
Likely Cutoff Score
:
30 Plus
Analysis Summary And Overall Expert Comments - CAT 2001
1. Comments - Paper Pattern similar to CAT-2000. QA section Difficulty Level lower than the other two sections i.e. English & DI.
2. CAT 2001 Paper Likely Cut Off Score
English RC & EU Section - 30Plus
QA/Problem Solving Section - 35Plus
DI & DS Section - 30 Plus
OVER ALL FOR IIM (For Interview Call) - 95 Plus
OVER ALL for MDI & SP JAIN - 85 - 90 plus
OVER ALL for MICA, CHANDIGARH
UBS, GOA - 75 to 80

3. Strategies Suggested for CAT 2002 :
- Shifting trends towards analytical Reasoning. Focus Accordingly.
- Trend towards QA/Problem Solving section becoming more logic based more focus on Number System and algebraic equations. Prepare/Practice QA more effectively.
- More emphasis required on speed reading for RC Passages.
- Time Planning importance on the increase.
- No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Sections could be 3 ( as for CAT '2000 & CAT 2001) or could even go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc.
- Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections. Prepare accordingly.
COMPARATIVE ANALYSIS - CAT 99, CAT 2000 & CAT 2001
READING COMPREHENSION
CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT 2001
No. of Passage 5 5 6
Approx. Words in Passage 1475 (6) 1200 (8) 1000 (6)
& (No. of Questions) 850 (6) 1100 (8) 800 (4)
825 (5) 1100 (8) 800 (5)
875 (5) 1100 (8) 750 (4)
850 (5) 1000 (8) 1200 (5)
750 (5)
Total Words & (No.of 5100 (27) 5500 (40) 5300 (30)
(Questions)
ENGLISH USAGE
Topic CAT 99 CAT 2000 CAT2001
Parajumbles Questions 10 10 5
(4/5/6 Type)
Sentence Correction 8
Inferential /
Deductive Reasoning 10
Fill in the Blanks 5 5
Sentence Arrangement
(4 /6 Statements)
Short Paragraphs
Substitute Underlines Portion
in sentence
Contextual usage 5
Match the two columns 5
Total Questions ------------ ------------ --------------
28 15 20
QUANTITATIVE ABILITY/ PROBLEM SOLVING
Topic
CAT 99
CAT 2000
CAT 2001
Arithmetic Questions



- Number System
10
15
14
- Averages, percentage/Mixtures
3
2
6
- Time, Speed & Distance
3
1
6
- General Arithmetic
3
8
6
Algebra Questions
9
9
7
Geometry & Mensuration
6
2
7
Permutations & Combination
3
1
1
Maxima & Minima Related
2
2
1
Set Theory(Functions & Graphs)
4
4

Graphical Situations
7
3
2
Verbal Logic/Logical Situations
5
8

TOTAL :
55
55
50


DATA INTERPRETATION (DI) & DATA SUFFICIENCY
Topic
CAT 99
CAT 2000
CAT 2001
Line Graph Questions
4
6
-
Line Chart
5
-
-
Tabular Data
5
14
15
Pie Chart
6
-
3
Case
-
5
-
Bar Diagram
-
10
14
Data Suffiency
10
10
3
Critical Reasoning
-
10
-
Analytical Reasoning
-
-
10
Set Theory
-
-
5
TOTAL :
30
55
50

Comparative Analysis - Trends & Expert Comments
1.Change in Format :- There is a clear increasing trend towards change in format and flexibility in number of sections and questions. CAT paper NO MORE STEREOTYPED.
2. Analytical and Logical Reasoning :- Focus shifting towards this.
3.Conventional Formula Based Questions :- A paradigm shift away from such questions.
4. Level of Difficulty :- Trend towards SURPRISES. Quant Ability/Problem solving section emerging as a less difficult section this year and reading comprehension getting difficult over the years. Increasing competition for CAT is possibly one of the major reason for this and QA/Problem solving section can eliminate large Number of students from the race.
5. Time Planning & Accuracy :- Increasing Importance towards these aspects.
6. No of Sections (Typically 4) not being adhered to. Section could be 3
(as for CAT ’2000 & CAT 2001) or could go to 5 next year. Adopt flexibility in approach with no RIGIDITY in mind about number of Sections /Questions / Type of Questions etc.
7. Analytical Reasoning / Logical reasoning questions may appear in any / all sections. Prepare accordingly.




CAT DECEMBER 2000

Section I - English Questions 55
English Usage
Questions
PARAJUMBLES¨
¨ Parajumbles ( 4-sentence type)
¨ Parajumbles ( 5-sentence type)
¨ Parajumbles ( 6-sentence type)
SENTENCE COMPLETION
1
4
5
10





5
Total
15

Reading Comprehension
Words
Questions
North Indian Classical Music)
Electronic & Magnetic Storage Technology
Settlement of Tribes
Abstractionism
Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)
1300
1450
1450
1400
1300
8
8
8
8
8
Total
6900
40
Every test taker must have let off a sigh of relief after seeing the RC passages. One should have spent about 40 minutes in this section attempting 3 passages that were relatively easy, and mostly contained fact-based questions, amounting to 24 questions. The language was simple, and comprehension wasn't difficult at all. The sentence completion questions were also easy as were the parajumbles and all 15 questions should have been attempted. Thus, totally one could have attempted around 35 - 40 questions in 40 minutes, achieving a score of 30.
Section II - Quantitative Questions 55
Topic
No. of Questions
ARITHMETIC
Number Systems
Rest of Arithmetic
11
4
15



ALGEBRA
Functionss
Progressions
Equations/Inequalities
8
1
3
12




GEOMETRY
Co-ordinate + Graphs
Plane Geometry
6
3
9



PERMUTATION / COMBINATION

3
REASONING

8
MISCELLANEOUS

8
TOTAL

55
The pattern of this section was not very different from last year - most of the questions were reasoning driven. For example, the set of questions on cricket was very simple, but most people dropped it because of lack of comfort with cases. A large number of questions could have been attempted by working with choices.
The paper would look difficult to someone who was not very comfortable with functions and Algebra - though the number of questions from these topics was not high, they presented a prominent front in the paper. But out of the 12 problems in functions 7 of them had nothing but a intimidating facade.
A second look at the paper would have enabled one to identify about 15-17 one-liners that were a straight go! An allocation of about 40 minutes would have made an attempt of about 25 fairly achievable.
Section III - DI, DS and Inferential Reasoning Questions 55

Questions
Data Sufficiency
10
Data Interpretation

30
Table- IT Industry
Table - Factories & Employment
Table - Export-Import Intensity
Bar Chart - Foreign Equity Inflow to GDP Ratio
Multiple Bar Chart - 4 bar charts (for 1990 - 98)
Line Chart - Variable Cost / Marginal Cost
6
4
5
4
5
6


REASONING
5
INFERENTIAL REASONING (short passages)
10
TOTAL
55
This section, comprising reasoning and data interpretation, could have come as a relief after the quant section. The key to this section was to attempt the DS and Inferential Reasoning questions and then pick up the easier sets of data. The five Logical Reasoning questions were lengthy to read, took time to solve, and hence, should have been the last resort as far as this section was concerned.
The tables on export-import intensity, factories and employment were a bit confusing and could have been left. The table on IT sector, was easy to understand and the questions were also direct. Similarly, the line chart on variable cost of Widget Manufacturing by ABC Ltd. and bar chart on Foreign Equity Inflow were straightforward. The set of data with four bar charts looked intimidating, but was very simple and should have been attempted.
Out of the 10 questions in Inferential Reasoning, 8 were easy. The options did not seem too confusing, but for someone who was daunted by the size of the paragraphs, these should not have been attempted at all! An attempt of about 6-7 questions was achievable.
An attempt of 7 to 8 in DS, 15 in DI and 7 to 8 in Inferential Reasoning was possible in 40 min. A net score of 25 was definitely on.


Comprehensive Analysis of the Common Admission Test
(for admission to the IIMs and other allied institutions in India)
Total Time allotted = 120 minutes (2 hours)
Total number of Sections = 3
Total Questions = 165
Section 1 English Usage + Reading Comprehension No. of questions = 55
Section 2 Mathematical Aptitude + Logical Reasoning No. of questions = 55
Section 3 Data Interpretation + Data Sufficiency + EU/RC + LR No. of
questions = 55
CAT 2000 -- OVERALL BASIC SUMMARY
1.CAT had 3 sections overall just like the previous year
(as compared to the conventional 4 sections that have been coming for the past 10 years before that). A basic reason for this could have been the examiners’ attempt to put stress on the students… however, since the students' already knew the pattern of the CAT and many had anticipated almost what it would be like this year, it was a sigh of relief for many ! (not that it would matter much as far as scores are concerned) It must be mentioned here that this pattern along with many others were taken up in the MM courseware and we are sure that our students would have benefited immensely from that rigorous practice.
(2) English Usage was based primarily on "understanding of language and not cramming of words."
Almost 10 questions were based on "Paragraph Formation" and "Rearrangement of sentences". This trend has been seen for the past 10 years. (MM students have a major advantage over others – this practice has been done in the class hundreds of times.)
Typical "Fill in the Blanks" type questions came again (they were not a part of CAT 1999). These have been done repeatedly in the MM classroom sessions.
No direct questions on Vocabulary came this time. No synonyms-antonyms types, no verbal analogies types, no odd-man-out types.
(3) Reading Comprehension was not very easy but was manageable for
the sincere student. A mix of very direct and some indirect questions
given.
Direct RC (passages followed by set of questions) had 5 passages and 40 questions. This came as part of the Language (EU + RC) section.
Indirect RC (small passages followed by ONE question) had 10 questions. This came in the third section (DI +DS + LR + RC)
MM students have a great edge over others as these types of passages have been discussed several times in the classes and the Library has several books of these types for students’ reference.
(4) English questions had several RC based "summary-type" questions.
(5) Not a single question based on Verbal Analogies, Synonyms, Antonyms, Odd Man Out was asked. The message is clear – No direct vocabulary questions please !
(6) Data Sufficiency has been standardised for the past 3 years. "Any one statement alone is sufficient" type directions came again. A total of 10 questions appeared.
(7) Data Interpretation was very easy this time compared to last few years. This is so because there were several very direct questions in the DI sets.
(8) A lot of Logical Reasoning based questions came this year spread across two sections.
(9) Maths section was not a cakewalk. Though about 20 questions were direct, the rest needed a lot of prior exposure and practice to manage. An interesting thing that has emerged is that the easiest of questions get couched in the most abstruse language and look difficult !
(10) The overall structure of CAT was clear -
Language - Usage + Comprehension 55 questions
Mathematics -- Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions
Data Analysis -- Aptitude + Reasoning 55 questions
(11) An ideal time division could have been –
Scheme No. 1 (for those more comfortable with Language)
Priority 1
English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 10-15 minutes
Priority 2
Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 30-35 min
Priority 3
Maths questions Time = 35 min
Priority 4
LR + DS + DI questions Time = 30-35 min
OR
Scheme no. 2 (for those more comfortable with Quantitative)
Priority 1
Maths questions Time = 35 min
Priority 2
LR + DS + DI questions Time = 25-30 min
Priority 3
Reading Comprehension questions from Section 1 Time = 35 min
Priority 4
English questions from Section 1 and 3 Time = 20 minutes
A Bird’s Eye-View of CAT 2000
(This is just a sketch… exact sectionwise details given later.)
The Basic Structure of each section was :
Section 1: English Usage + Reading Comprehension
Q.1 to Q.5 Paragraph formation of 5 statements
(*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in
MM’s courseware for CAT).
Q.6 to Q.10 Fill in the blanks type questions. There were 2 blanks to be
filled in each question. Very direct questions. (*ample practice
material of hundreds of questions given in MM’s courseware for
CAT that included even 4 blanks per question!).
Q.11 to Q.15 Paragraph formation of 6 statements (4 between 2 types)
(*ample practice material of hundreds of questions given in
MM’s courseware for CAT).
Q.16 to Q.23 Reading Comprehension passage no. 1 on 'Crisis faced by the
School of Abstractionist Art'.
Q.24 to Q.31 Reading Comprehension passage no. 2 on 'Differences in
approach between North Indian classical music and Western
classical music'.
Q.32 to Q. 39 Reading Comprehension passage no. 3 on 'MNCs in
Agribusiness and TRIPS'.
Q.40 to Q.47 Reading Comprehension passage no. 4 on 'Different Types of
Storage devices used in computers'.
Q.48 to Q.55 Reading Comprehension passage no. 5 on 'The Conquest of
the West by the European Settlers' (*ample practice material
of hundreds of passages given in MM’s courseware for CAT.
These passages were almost identical to the ones in
MM’s study material).
Section 2: Mathematical Aptitude
Q. Conversion of Decimal into Fractions type questions à Number theory
based question à A must do type à would take 15 seconds at the most.
Q. Linear equations with tabulated data given for X and Y à Linear equation
theory based question à Can be done type à would take 60 seconds at
the most.
Q. Generation of Numbers series (A1, A2 types) à Number theory based
question à A must do type à would take 30 seconds at the most.
Q. Value of a given fraction à Number theory based question à A can do
type à would take 80 seconds at the most.
Q. Truck travelling at a rate and fuel consumption types à Percentages and
Time-Speed theory based question à A can do type à would take 60
seconds at the most.
Q. Sequence of 7 consecutive integers given and average is asked à Number
theory based question à A can do type à would take 45 seconds at the
most.
Q. Given conditions on X and Y, find the true statement à Logic and Number
theory based question à A must do type à would take 30 seconds at the
most.
Q. One red, three white, and two blue flags to be arranged, finding the
number of arrangements à Permutations and combinations based
question à A can do type à would take 60 seconds at the most.
Q. Given a set of integers X and some conditions à Number theory and Set
theory based question à A can do type à would take 50 seconds at the
most
Q. Three distinct integers X, Y, Z positive and odd, finding the false statement
à Logic and Number theory based question à A must do type à would
take 30 seconds at the
most.
Q. A set of prime numbers > 2 and < 100 given, find the number of
consecutive zeroes in the product à Logic and Number theory based
question à A must do type à would take 30 seconds at the most.
Q. N = 1421 x 1423….. divided by 12 to get the remainder à Modulus theory
based question à A must do type à would take 15 seconds at the most.
Q. Number of distinct triangles with some given perimeter à Geometry
theory based question à A must do type à would take 60 seconds at the
most.
Q. Given 34041 and 32506 being divided by a three digit number to give a
common remainder. What could that number be ? à Number theory based
question à A must do type à would take 25 seconds at the most.
Q. Given the numbers x1, x2 etc. upto xn each having a range of values.
Finding the value of n. à Logic + Number theory based question à A may
do type à would take 120 seconds at the most.
Q. Table of age of people (of a country called Indonesia) Finding the number
of females à Calculation based question à A can do type à would take
60 seconds at the most.
Q. Sam forgets his friend's phone number (and other conditions given) ….
Number of attempts required to get through à Permutation and
Combinations based question à A not do type.
Q. Binary operations based two questions with symbols like @, /, X etc. à
Binary operations based question à A must do type à would take 60
seconds at the most. {it seems this question had a printing error --many
students reported so}
Q. X, Y, Z are real numbers. Functions f(X, Y, Z) defined as ….etc. à Number
theory based question à A must do type à would take 60 seconds at the
most.
Q. Robot delivering goods to machines A, B, C, D, E etc. à Logic based
question à A can do type à would take 120 seconds at the most for both
the questions.
Q. Function based question with three graphs given (exactly similar as last
year's CAT) à Graph based question à A must do type à would take 60
seconds at the most.
Q. Three bottles A, B, C having certain capacities ….. controlled by a
computer…. à Logic based question à A must do type à would take 60
seconds at the most.
Q. Sixteen teams playing ABC goldcup… matches to be played in 2 stages
….à Logic based question à A can do type à would take 250 seconds at
the most.
Q. N = 55cubed + 17 cubed - 72 cubed divided by ……à Logic + Number
theory based question à A can do type à would take 60 seconds at the
most.
Q. X2 + Y2 = 1 and other conditions given à Number theory based question
à A not do type.
Q. Rhombus ABCD …… diagonals intersecting at the origin and other
conditions …. à Geometry based question à A must do type à would take
45 seconds at the most.
Q. Circle of unit radius having sectors S1, S2 ….. Areas of sectors….à
Geometry based question à A must do type à would take 45 seconds at
the most.
Q. Books 1, 2 and 3 placed in an order on a table….. to be shifted to the
next table…à Logic based question à A can do type à would take 60
seconds at the most.
Q. Area bounded by 3 curves | X + Y |= 1 and other conditions given à
Geometry + Logic based question à A not do type.
Q. Given equation X cubed - a X squared etc. having real roots, then find a,b
à Linear equations + Logic based question à A can do type à would take
60 seconds at the most.
Q. Sides of a triangle are given (a, b, c). Find the triangle …. à Trigonometry
based question à A not do type.
Q. Figure given ab = bc = cd ……finding Ð dae etc. à Geometry based
question à A not do type.
Q. A shipping clerk having 5 boxes …… weighing them in pairs… find the
heaviest box …à Logic based question à A not do type.
Q. Three cities A, B, C connected by road ….. Find the number of ways of
going from one city to another etc. à Pure Logic based question (several
such questions appear in the MM material especially the Final Test series)
à A not do type basically because of the time involved.
Q. Convert 1982 from base 10 to base 12 à Number theory based that can
be done from the options directly à A must do type à would take 10
seconds at the most.
Q. Two tanks, cylindrical and conical….. difference of capacities of the two
given…. Finding capacity of cylindrical à Working backwards from options
based question à A must do type à Would take at the most 15 seconds.
Q. Farmer … fencing his field … gets less number of fences… find length of
field and number of fences…. à Linear equation based question à A must
do type à at the most 30 seconds.
Section 3: Data Interpretation/Data Sufficiency/Verbal Reasoning/Logical Reasoning
Q. 111-115 LR based 5 questions
Q. 116-126 5 questions on Import Export data and Deficit SOME MORE ALSO
… unable to recall
Q. 127-131 Bar graph based questions on "Various sectors of Economy"
Q. 132-136 IT in India - Tabular type questions
Q. 137-141 Tabular question on "Companies and Sectors of Corporate India"
Q. 142-145 FEI graph and questions based on that bar graph
Q. 146-155 DS questions
Q. 156-165 RC Theme based questions
General Caveat: This question numbering is based on a particular set of test paper. Your test paper may have had a different numbering order but the questions are identical across all sets.

Overall we can summarise that the level of difficulty of this paper was marginally tougher than that of CAT 2000. Hence, cut-offs are likely to drop a little. An attempt of 90 can be considered a good one. With inputs from Mumbai, Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi, Cochin, Tiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Lucknow, Jaipur, Calcutta, Guwahati, and Pune the following performance parameters can be taken as a benchmark for all the CAT 2000 takers.
Section
Questions
Possible Attempts
Possible Score
Cut-off for a definite call
Section I
55
40
30 - 35
26
Section II
55
25
20
16
Section III
55
30
25
22
Total
165
95
75 - 80
70 - 75
For IIMs the cutoff could be 70 and 75+ is a sure shot call from the top ones. For institutes like MDI, SPJain the cutoff could be 65+ net and for MICA, GIM, UBS the cutoffs could be 60+. It is quite likely that these institutes may look at only total cutoffs and not sectional ones.
Though the most important of all the MBA entrances is behind, others are round the corner. With IITs, FMS, XLRI etc. to follow, it is time to look ahead and be determined to do well in those. Be positive in realizing your dreams. We are sure you all will.
However good or bad you may feel about the CAT, the results are bound to surprise many of you. This has been happening year after year leaving many with hardly any time to prepare for the second round - face to face. Hence start thinking about the preparation for the next phase - Group discussions and Interviews. Do not be left behind. Evaluate and join programs on personality development that are being offered by some organizations in your city. The programs will expose you to the challenges ahead and prepare you to face it confidently. Enroll yourselves now and make a difference to yourself.


CAT-2000
(C) MBA m a t t e r s
NUMBER OF SECTIONS- 3
The main subjects were distributed over the three sections as illustrated in the table below.

Subject
Marks
Difficulty Level
I
Verbal Skills
Reading Comprehension
15
40
Average
Average
II
Quantitative Ability
55
Tough
III
Data Interpretation
Critical Reasoning
45
10
Average+
Average+

TOTAL
165

Given this format there were several possible strategies you could have adopted.
These are two of the most likely approaches to have been taken.
TIME ALLOTMENT STRATEGIES
Strategy 1
Strategy 2
Section 1- 40 minutes
Section 1- 40 minutes
Section 2- 40 minutes
Section 2- 50 minutes
Section 3- 40 minutes
Section 3- 30 minutes
It is probable that some of you may have got a little nervous and failed to optimise your resources. But given that you have been preparing for all kinds of possibilities, we hope that all of you have allocated more time to the tough Quantitative section. However remember that strategies depend upon your individual methods of functioning and your strengths and that whatever you chose may work out for you in the end.
Our next task is to look at the five main subject sections [Verbal Ability, Reading Comprehension, Reasoning (including Critical, Mathematical, Analytical), Mathematics and Data Interpretation] and examine the areas that CAT focussed on in each. Here is a break up of each subject in terms of the marks allotted to different kinds of questions and the level of difficulty.
Verbal Ability
Types of Questions
Allotted Marks
Difficulty Level
Jumbled Sentences (4-5)
5
Average
Jumbled Sentences (6)
5
Average
Fill in the Blanks (5)
5
Average
Total
15

Reading Comprehension
Serial No.
Subject
No. of qns.
Diff. Level
1.
IT
8
Average
2.
Abstract Art
8
Average
3.
TRIPS
8
Average
4.
Classical Music
8
Average
5.
Negative Fallouts of Innovations
8
Average+
Total

40

Reasoning
Areas Tested
Number of Questions
Difficulty Level
Critical Reasoning
10
Average+
Maths Reasoning
13
Average
Analytical Reasoning
10
Average
TOTAL
33

Mathematics
Subject
Allotted Marks
Difficulty Level
Functions
13
Average+
Permutations
3
Tough
Geometry
3
Easy
Algebra
7
Tough
Coordinate Geometry
3
Average+
Understanding Numbers
7
Average
Mensuration
1
Average
Arithmetic
2
Average
Inequality
3
Average
Total
42

Data Interpretation
Areas Tested
Allotted Marks
Difficulty Level
Bar Graph
10
Average
Line Graph
4
Average+
Tables
11
Tough
Data Sufficiency
10
Average
TOTAL
35

Since the level of difficulty coupled with the novelty of the paper pattern has probably thrown most people off guard, cut-offs this year are likely to be slightly lower than they usually are. Our tea leaves tell us that given this break up
Section
Optimal Time
Optimal Attempts
Optimum Score
Cut-Offs- IIMs
I
40 minutes
40-45
32+
25
II
50 minutes
25-30
20+
17
III
30 minutes
30-35
25+
23
Total
2 hours
95-110
85
75
It has been a tough road…especially the last leg of the journey. No Deductive Reasoning, no Percentages, no Alligation, no Trigonometry, no Grammar…It only proves what we all know and dread. You can make very few predictions about CAT. This year has driven it home more truly than ever before.
Section II
2. What is the area of the region bounded by |x + y| = 1, | x | = 1 & |y | = 1
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 3
3. ABCD is a rhombus with diagonals AC & BD intersecting in at the origin in the xy plane. If equations of AD is x + y = 1 then the equation of line BC is
(a) x + y = 1 (b) x + y = - 1 (c) x – y = 1 (d) none of these
Directions : For question (4-5), certain relation is defined among variable A & B.
Using the relation answer the question given below.
@ (A, B) = average of A & B
\ (A, B) = product of A & B
x (A, B) = the result when A is divided by B
4. The sum of A & B is given by
(a) \ (@ (A, B), 2)
(b) @ (\(A, B),2)
(c) @ (X (A, B) 2)
(d) none of these
5. The average of A, B & C is given by
(a) @(x ( \ (@ ( A, B ), 2 ), c), 3)
(b) \ (x ( \ (@ (A, B ) ) c, 2)
(c) X (@ ( \ (@ (A, B), 2) c, 3)
(d) @ ( \ (@ (A,B), 2), C)
Directions for question 6-8:
x & y are non – zero real numbers
F (x, y) = +(x + y)0. 5 , If (x +y) 0. 5is real, otherwise = (x + y )2
g (x, y) = (x + y )2 if (x + y ) 0 . 5 is real , otherwise = - (x + y )
6. For which of the following is F(x, y) necessarily greater than g(x, y)
(a) x & y are positive
(b) x & y are negative
(c) x & y are grater than - 1
(d) none of these
7. Which of the following is necessarily false ?
(a) f (x, y) <= g (x, y) for 0 <= x, y < 0.5
(b) f (x, y) > g (x, y) when x, y < - 1
(c) f(x,y) > g(x,y) for x,y>1
(d) None of these
8. If f(x,y) = g(x,y) then
(a) x = y (b) x + y = 1 (c) x = - ¼ y = 5/4 (d) Both b & c
9. Convert 1982 in base 10 to base 12.
(a) 1129 (b) 1292 (c) 1192 (d) 1832
10. Sameer has to make a telephone call to his friend Harish. Unfortunately he does not remember the 7 – digit phone number. But he remembers the first 3 digits are 635 or 674, the number is odd and there is exactly one 9 in the number. The minimum number of trials that Sameer has to make to be successful is
(a) 10,000 (b) 2430 (c) 3200 (d) 5000
11. D is a real number with non –terminating digits after the decimal point.
D = 0.a1 a2 a1 a2 a1 a2…..with a1 & a 2 not both zero. Which of the following
when multiplied by D will necessarily give an integer?
(a) 18 (b) 198 (c) 100 (d) 288
12. P is the product of all the prime numbers between 1 to 100. Then the number of Zeroes at the end of P are:
(a) 1 (b) 24 (c) 0 (d) none of these
13. There are two disjoint sets S1 and S2 where
S1 = { f (1), f (2), f (3) , …………}
S2 = {g (1), g (2), g (3) , ……….} such that S1 U S2 forms the set of natural numbers. Also f (1)< f (2) < f (3)……… & g (1) < g (2) < g (3)…f(n) = g(g(n)) + 1
Then what is g (1)?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) can’t be determined
14. There is a regular octagon A B C D E F G, a Frog is at the vertex A. it can jump on to any of the vertices except
the exactly opposite vertex the frog visits all the vertices exactly once and then reaches vertex E then how many
times did it jump before reaching E ?
(a) 7 (b) 2n + 1 (c) 6 (d) can’t be determined
15. Find the following sum:
1/(22 - 1 ) + 1/(42 – 1)+ 1/(62 – 1) + …………+1/(202– 1)
(a) 9/10 (b) 10/11 (c) 19/21 (d) 10/21
16.

x
1
2
3
4
5
6
y
4
8
14
22
32
44
Which of the following equation will be best fit for above data?
(a) y = ax + b
(b) y = a + bx+cx2
(c) y = ea x +b
(d) None of these
17. There are five boxes, each of a different weight & none weighing more than 100. Arun weighs two boxes at a time and obtains the following readings in grams : 110, 111, 112, 114, 115, 116, 117, 119, 120, 121, what is the weight of the heaviest box?
(a) 60 (b) 61 (c) 64 (d) can’t be determined.
18. N = 1421 x 1423 x 1425 what is the remainder when N is divided by 12?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 9
19. x > 2, y > -1 then which of the following holds good?
(a) xy > -2
(b) xy < -2
(c) x > -2/y
(d) None of these
20. xn are either –1 or 1 & n ³ 4
x1 x2 x3 x4 + x2 x3 x4 x5 + x3 x4 x5 x6 + ……+xn x1 x2 x3 = 0 then n can be
(a) odd (b) even (c) prime (d)can’t be determined
21. What number should be subtracted from both 32534 & 33069 so that the resultant give the same remainder on division by a 3 digit number?
(a) 298 (b) 307 (c) 461 (d)can’t be determined
22. If x, y and z are odd integers which of the following is necessarily false?
(a) xyz is odd
(b) ( x – y) z is even
(c) (x – y ) (z + y ) x is even
(d) (x – y – z ) (x + z ) is odd
23. A, B and C are 3 cities that form a triangle & where every city is connected to every other one by at least one direct root. There are 33 routes direct & indirect from A to C & there are 23 routes from B to A. How many direct routes are there from A to C?
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 25
24. If f ( 0, y ) = y + 1, f (x + 1, y) = f ( x , f (x, y )) Then, what is the value of f(1,2)?
(a) 1 (b)2 (c) 3 (d) 4
25. A and B are two cities 10 Km apart. A load of 80 Kg has to be transported from A to B. the courier service is charges @ 10 Rs per hour. The optimal speed that one can go without load is 10 Km/ hr, the speed reduces to 5 Km/hr with a weight of10 Kg. Further with 20 Kg (which is the maximum weight that can be carried), the speed is 2 km/hr. What is the minimum cost?
(a) 200 (b) 180 (c) 160 (d) 140
26. If the perimeter of a triangle is 14 and the sides are integers, then how many different Triangles are possible?
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
27. There are two tanks, one cylindrical and the other conical. The cylindrical tank contains 500 litre limca more than the conical tank. 200 litres is removed both from the cylindrical and conical tank. Now the cylindrical tank contains double the volume of liquid in the conical tank. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank in litre?.
(a) 1000 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 1200
28. a,b & c are sides of a triangle. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ac then the triangle will be
(a) equilateral (b) isosceles (c)right angled (d) obtuse angle
29. There are seven consecutive natural numbers such that the average of the first five is n. then average of all seven numbers will be?
(a) n
(b) n + 1
(c) kn + 1/k where k is a positive constraint.
(d) n+2/7
Direction: For questions (30- 31).
There are three vessels A,B, and C with capacities 5, 3 and 2 respectively. There is a computer program that can perform certain functions as described below:
Drain (Y) : drains the liquid in a vessel Y.Fill (X,Y) : fill amount from Y into X such that the amount of liquid withdrawn from Yis equal to the liquid in X.
Empty (X,Y) : empty amount from Y into X such that the amount left in Y is equal to the amount of liquid in X.
30. The following operations are performed in succession
1. Fill (C,A) 2. --------- 3. Fill (C,A)
What should the second operation be if after the three operations A should contain one litre of liquid?
(a)Empty (C,B) (b)Empty (B,C) (c)Fill (C,B) (d)Fill (B,C)
31. In addition to the three operations in above problem, the fourth operation performed is Drain A. What operations should follow so that A contains four litres of liquid?
(a) Empty (B,A) , Drain (c)
(b) Empty (B,A) , Empty (C,A)
(c) Fill (B,A) , Fill (C,A)
(d) Fill (A,B) , Fill(A,C)
32. If the equation of x3 – ax2 + bx – a has three real roots then the following is true.
(a) a = 1 (b) a ¹ 1 (c) b = 1 (d) b ¹ 1
Directions: For questions (33-35) graphs of some functions are given mark the options
(a) If f ( x ) = 3f (-x)
(b) If f (x) = f (-x)
(c) If f (x) = - f (- x)
(d) If 3f ( x ) = 6 f (- x)
36. There are three books on table A which has to be moved to table B. The order of the book on Table A was 1, 2, 3, with book 1 at the bottom. The order of the book on table 1 should be with book 2 on top and book 1 on bottom. Note (You can pick up the books in the order they have arranged. You can’t remove the books from the middle of the stack)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Directions: For questions (37 – 38)
There are five machines A, B, C, D, E arranged in a straight line with 10 m distance between adjacent machines a robot is waiting at the origin and is assigned the job to transport raw material from the origin from the machines for processing. A is nearest to the origin at a distance of 10 meters. Each of the machine sends a signal to the robot when it requires some raw material. The robot then carries the raw material to the respective machines. How ever if any machine sends the signal when the robot has already left the origin then it will receive the signal only when it returns to the origin. Speed of the robot is given as 10 m/s.
Machine A sends a signal in the 1st second
Machine B sends a signal in the 5th second
Machine D sends a signal in the 6th second
37. Now if machine E sends a signal in the 8th second then what is the distance that the robot has travelled just before the machine E sends the signal ?
(a) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160 (d) 200
38. Now if the origin were at the other side 10 meter beyond E and the robot was at the new origin in the beginning. The robot after delivering the raw material to any of the machine goes to the origin which is nearest to him. Then what is the distance travelled before it receives the signal sent by machine E.
(a) 160 (b) 140 (c)180 (d) none of these
Directions: For questions (39 - 41):
Functions m & M are defined as follows:
m(a, b, c) = min (a+b, c,a)
M (a,b,c) = max (a+b,c,a)
39. If a = -2, b = -3 & c = 2 what is the maximum between[m(a,b,c)+M(a,b,c)] / 2 & [m(a,b,c) – M (a,b,c)] / 2
(a) 3/2 (b) 7/2 (c) –3/2 (d) –7/2
40. If a & b,c are negative, then what gives the minimum of a & b
(a) m(a,b,c) (b) -M (-a, a,-b) (c) m(a+b,b,c) (d) none of these
41. What is m (M(a-b, b,c), m(a+b,c,b), -M (a,b,c) for a = 2 b = 4, c = 3?
(a) –4 (b) 0 (c) –6 (d) 3
Directions: For questions (42- 43)
F (x) = 1 / 1 + x if x is positive
= 1 + x if x is negative or zero
f n (x) = f ( f n – 1 (x) )
42. If x = 1, find f 1(x) f 2 (x) f 3 (x) f 4(x) ………….f 9(x)
(a) 1/15 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/18 (d) 1/17
43. If x = -1 what will f 5 (x) be
(a) 2/3 (b)1/2 (c) 3/5 (d) 4
44. There are eight sectors with areas S1, S2, S3, ----- S8 in a circle of radius 1 unit. the total areas of the seven sectors is p /8 units. The area of the sector is given by Sj = 2(j – 1) for j>1.What is the angle subtended by sector S1 at the centre ?
(a) p /508 (b)p /1016 (c) p /2040 (d)p /127
45. 553 + 173 - 723 is divisible by
(a) both 3 and 13
(b) both 7 and 17
(c) both 3 and 17
(d) both 7 and 13
46. 100? x ? 200, such that x is divisible by 3 but not 7 and x is odd. The possible number of values of x is,
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 13
47. One red, three white and two blue flags are to be arranged in such a way that no two flags of the same colour are adjacent and the flags at the two ends are of different colours. The number of ways in which this can be done is,
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 12
48. a1 = 1 and an+1 = 2an + 5, for n being a natural number. The value of a100 is
(a) 5x299 + 6 (b) 5x299 - 6 (c) 6x299 + 5 (d) 6x299 - 5<
49. |x2 +y2| = 0.1 and |x-y| = 0.2, then the value of |x| + |y| is,
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.36 (d) 0.4
Directions: For questions (50 – 53) The tournament for ABC Cup is arranged as per the following rules:
In the beginning 16 teams are entered and divided in 2 groups of 8 teams each where the team in a any group plays exactly once with all the teams in the same group. At the end of this round top four teams from each group advance to the next round in which two teams play each other and the losing team goes out of the tournament. The rules of the tournament are such that every match can result only in a win or a loss and not in a tie. The winner in the first round takes one point from the win and the loser gets zero. In case of tie on a position the rules are very complex and include a series of deciding measures.
50. What is the total number of matches played in the tournament?
(a) 63 (b) 56 (c) 64 (d) 55
51. The maximum number of matches that a team going out of the tournament in the first round itself can win is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
52. The minimum number of matches that a team must win in order to qualify for the second round is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
53. Which of the following statements about a team which has already qualified for the second round is true?
(a) To win the cup it has to win exactly 14 matches
(b) To win the cup it has to win 3 more matches
(c) To win the cup it has to win 4 more matches
(d) To win the cup it has to win 5 more matches
54. The vehicle of Mr. Ghosh needs 30% more fuel at the speed of 75 kmph than it needs at the
seed of 50kmph. At a speed of 50 kmph, Mr. Ghosh can go to a distance of 195 kms. At the speed of 75 kmph, he will be able to travel a distance of,
(a) 120 kms (b) 150 kms (c) 160 kms (d) 140 kms
55. Let ’ f ‘ be a function from set A to set B for a set X Ì B, define f -1(X) = {xÎ A: f(x) Î X} Then which of the following is necessarily true for a subset U of X?
(a) f(f -1 (U)) = U (b) f(f -1 (U)) Ì U (c) f(f -1 (U)) É U (d) f(f -1 (U)) ¹ U
Answer Key : Back to top

1.b
2.d
3.b
4.a
5.d
6.d
7.a
8.b
9.c
10.b
11.b
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.d
16.b
17.d
18.c
19.a
20.b
21.b
22.d
23.b
24.d
25.c
26.a
27.d
28.a
29.b
30.d
31.d
32.b
33.b
34.d
35.c
36.d
37.b
38.a
39.c
40.b
41.c
42.d
43.c
44.b
45.c
46.d
47.a
48.a
49.d
50.a
51.d
52.c
53.b
54.b
55.c






SECTION III
Directions for questions 18 to 27 : Mark
(a) If one of the statement is sufficient to answer the question and another is not.
(b) If both the statements can answer the question independently.
(c) both statements are required to answer the question.
(d) Question cannot be answered.
18. In a triangle D PQR, in which Ð PQR is 90° . What is PQ+RQ?
(I) The diameter of incircle is 10 cm.
(II) The diameter of circumcircle is 18 cm.
19. X,Y,Z are real number, is Z smallest?
(I) X is greater than at least one of the Y or Z.
(II) Y is greater than at least one of the X or Z.
20. Today a person purchase some share and the next day he sells them. In both the transaction
he paid a brokerage of 1% per share. What is the profit per rupee investes?
(I) The selling price of a share is 1.05 times cost price.
(II) The no of share he sells is 100.
21. Is modulus of x always less than 3?
(I) x(x+3) < 0
(II) x(x-3) < 0
22. A line cuts 2 concentric circles in points a,e and b,d. Is ac/ce = 1? Point c is on line ae.
(I) bc = cd
(II) If a third circle cuts in same points b and d, points c lies on line joining the centres of circle.
23. If x and y are positive integer f (x,y) = . Find f(0,1)
(a) f(a,b) = f(b,a)
(b) f(a,b) = 0 if b = 0
24. In a group, 100 people drink coffee only, how many drink tea only?
(a) 100 drink both tea and coffee.
(b) Number of people having tea or coffee or both is 1500.
25. The equation of 2 lines are ax+by = c and dx+ey = f, are the lines intersecting?
(a) a,b,c,d,e,f are distict real no's.
(b) c and f are non zero's no's.
26. A person leaves for No man Island in North America from Mumbai at 5:00 pm. Local
time and flies non stop . At what time he reaches no man Island(local time)?
(a) He flies with an average speed of 150 kmph.
(b) The distance between Mumbai and No man Island is 1500 km.
27.Ghosh Babu wanted to cordon off a triangular piece from a corner of his square piece of land
of perimeter 400 meters. What was the length of the longest side of the cordoned off area?
(a) The cordoned off area is an isosceles triangle.
(b) Each of the smaller sides of the triangle is 20 m.
Directions for questions 28 to 34 : The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Softsoft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.

94-95
95-96
96-97
97-98
98-99
Haardware





(a) Domestic
68
54
52
66
35
(b) Exports
540
600
730
1770
1827
Software





(a) Domestic
142
127
150
320
422
(b) Exports
1100
1200
1339
2500
2215
Peripherals
25
10
25
20
37
Training
140
106
160
240
161
Maintenance
21
19
25
92
126
Others
12
10
19
40
24
Total
2048
2126
2500
5048
4947
28. In which year hardware exports has been between 35 - 40 % of total?
(a) 97 - 98 and 98 - 99 ; (b) 98 - 99 and 95 - 96
(c) 97 - 98 and 94 - 95 ; (d) 95 - 96 and 96 - 97
29. Which of the following is true?
(a) The revenues from training consistently increases over a period of time
(b) Hardware exports consistently increase over a period of time
(c) Software exports consistently increase over a period of time
(d) None of the above
30. In how many years the total revenue on training and maintenance is less than ten percent of the
total revenues?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) all
31. In which of the following years the total hardware revenue is more than 50 % of that of the
software revenue in the same year ?
(a) 94 - 95 (b) 95 -96 and 96 - 97 (c) 97 - 98 and 94 - 95 (d) None of the above
32.If in 99-00 total revenue decrease by five percent over previous years but software increases
to 2437 crores what is the approximate percentage decrease in rest of the heads considering
uniform decrease.
(a) 1.0% (b)1.8% (c)2.0% (d)3.3%
For the next two questions follow these additional directions.
Taking a field (say A) , year X is said to dominate over year Y if the revenues from field A in year X is greater than that in year Y.
Taking two years,1 and 2, into consideration, for two fields A and B ,
(a) A is said to dominate over B, if A³ B in one year and A>B in the other.
(b) Year1 is said to dominate over year2, if A1³ A2, and B1³ B2. There should be strict inequality in atleast one year.
33. Which of the following is true?
(a) Hardware and training dominate software throughout the period
(b) Hardware dominates the peripherals throughout the period
(c) Peripherals and Others dominate training in the year 94 - 95 and 98 - 99
(d) None of the above
34. Taking Peripherals Exports and Training together which of the following is true?
(a) 96 - 97 dominates 97 -98
(b) 97 - 98 dominates 98 - 99
(c) 98 - 99 dominates 97 - 98
(d) None of the above
35. In a bag a person can carry 10 books. The books are mathematics physics, management and
fiction. If a person carries a book of management, he has to carry two or more books of fiction. If
he carries a book of mathematics he has to carry two or more books of physics. In carrying books
he used to get certain points. To carry a book of management, mathematics, physics and fiction
each the points he got were 4, 3, 2, 1 respectively. He has to carry a book of each subject. So what
is the maximum no of points a person can get
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23
36. Five persons P, Q, T, S, M lives in a hut, palace, hotel, cottage, penthouse not necessarily in
that order. Each of them like two colours out of red, green, yellow, blue and black. P likes red
and blue. Q lives in a hut. T likes yellow and black and S likes the colour liked by P. the person
who lives in a palace doesn’t like blue or black colour where does M stay?
(a) palace (b) hut (c) cottage (d) pent house
37. There is a gathering to felicitate 7 cricketers T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z. They are all seated on one side
of a rectangular table. V and W want to leave early and so will occupy the two positions on the
extreme right of the table. T is the man of the match and hence will occupy the centre position.
U and V are bitter enemies and should be seated as far as possible. Y, T and X are great friends
and so must be seated always next to each other. What is the position of X?
(a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 3rd or 5th
38.Rita, Sita, Gita and Mita went to a dance party with Tarun, Arun, Varun and Karun.Rita did
not dance with Tarun or Varun, Gita knew only disco dance and Arun and Varun did not know
disco. Mita and Varun are bitter enemies and won't dance with each other. Given a choice, Arun
won't dance with Mita. Karun's partener is Gita. Who was Mita's dance partner?
(a) Tarun (b) Arun (c) Karun (d) Varun
39. Four persons A, B , C and D live in four houses which are Red, Green Blue and Yellow in colour.
A doesn't live adjacent to the Yellow house. B lives in the Yellow house. The Yellow house is
adjacent to the Green and the Red house. What is the colour of A's house?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) can't be determined
Directions for questions 40 to 45 :

Factories
Employment
Fixed Capital
Variable Cost
Value Added
Government
18
15
14
22
25
Central
8
6
5
7
10
State
4
6
4
8
3
Central/State
6
3
5
7
12
Public
12
8
6
19
8
Private
55
65
72
54
62
Joint
15
12
8
5
5
Total
100
100
100
100
100
40. If the total work force was 76 million whereas the total value added was 225 million, then which of
the following had the maximum value addition per worker?
(a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public
41. Which of the following sectors has the maximum fixed capital invested per factory?
(a) Central (b) State (c) Central/State (d) Public
42. If the variable cost is proportional to the number of employees and the production per employee,
then for which of the following is the production the highest?
(a) Government (b) Private (c) Joint (d) Public
43. If the government has a fixed capital of $200 million in the Iron & Steel industry, which corresponds
to 20.012% of its total investment as fixed capital, then how much, did the government invest (in
Rs. Million) in Maruti Udyog Ltd. which forms 25% of the investment in the joint sector?
(1 US $ = Rs. 45)
(a) 6500 (b) 2500 (c) 143 (d) 145
44. Maruti Udyog Ltd. is a joint project of the Indian Government and Suzuki Motors, Japan, each
having equal stake. One fine day, the Indian government decides to disinvest from the venture
due to losses occurring from labor problems. How much money will be disinvested?( Refered to
question 43, if required)
(a) Rs.246 million (b)Rs 6500 million (c) $246 million (d) $6500 million
45. Which of the following statement is true
(a) the number of govt employees are more than that of the number of factories in joint sector
(b)The number of employees in the public sector is same as fixed capital of joint sector
(c) Both a and b
(d) Cannot say
Answer Key : Back to top
1.a
2.c
3.b
4.d
5.d
6.b
7.d
8.b
9.a
10.c
11.b
12.d
13.a
14.a
15.b
16.b
17.d
18.c
19.c
20.a
21.a
22.b
23.c
24.c
25.d
26.d
27.a
28.a
29.b
30.d
31.d
32.b
33.b
34.b
35.c
36.a
37.d
38.a
39.c
40.c
41.b
42.b
43.a
44.b
45.d







Note : In actual test-paper 10 questions on Critical Reasoning were also there in this section.

CAT-1999

TIME ALLOWED : 2 Hours
No. of Sections : 3 , 55 questions in each section.
No. of Questions: 165

CAT-1999

SECTION I

Number of questions: 55

DIRECTIONS for questions I to 5: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentence from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

1.
A. In rejecting the functionalism in positivist organization theory, either wholly or partially, there is often a move towards a political model of organization theory.
B. Thus the analysis would shift to the power resources possessed by different groups in the organization and the way they use these resources in actual power plays to shape the organizational structure.
C. At the extreme, in one set of writings, the growth of administrators in the organization is held to be completely unrelated to the work to be done and to be caused totally by the political pursuit of self- interest.
D. The political model holds that individual interests are pursued in organizational life through the exercise of power and influence.
1. ADBC
2. CBAD
3. DBCA
4. ABDC

2.
A. Group decision making, however, does not necessarily fully guard against arbitrariness and anarchy, for individual capriciousness can get substituted by collusion of group members.
B. Nature itself is an intricate system of checks and balances, meant to preserve the delicate balance between various environmental factors that affect our ecology.
C. In institutions also, there is a need to have in place a system of checks and balances which inhibits the concentration of power in only some individuals.
D. When human interventions alter this delicate balance, the outcomes have been seen to be disastrous.
1. CDAB
2. BCAD
3. CABD
4. BDCA

3.
A. He was bone-weary and soul-weary, and found himself muttering, "Either I can't manage this place, or it's unmanageable."
B. To his horror, he realized that he had become the victim of an amorphous, unwitting, unconscious conspiracy to immerse him in routine work that had no significance.
C. It was one of those nights in the office. when -the office clock was moving towards four in the morning and Bennis was still not through with the incredible mass of paper stacked before him.
D. He reached for his calendar and ran his eyes down each hour, half-hour, and quarter-hour, to see where his time had gone that day, the day before, the month before.
1. ABCD
2. CADB
3. BDCA
4. DCBA

4.
A. With that, I swallowed the shampoo, and obtained most realistic results almost on the spot.
B. The man shuffled away into the back regions to make up a prescription, and after a moment I got through on the shop-telephone to the Consulate, intimating my location.
C. Then, while the pharmacist was wrapping up a six-ounce bottle of the mixture, I groaned and inquired whether he could give me something for acute gastric cramp.
D. I intended to stage a sharp gastric attack, and entering an old-fashioned pharmacy, I asked for a popular shampoo mixture, consisting of olive oil and flaked soap.
1. DCBA
2. DACB
3. BDAC
4. BCDA

5.
A. Since then, intelligence tests have been mostly used to separate dull children in school from average or bright children, so that special education can be provided to the dull.
B. In other words, intelligence tests give us a norm for each age.
C. Intelligence is expressed as Intelligence quotient, and tests are developed to indicate what an average child of a certain age can do-what a 5-year-old can answer, but a 4year-old cannot, for instance.
D. Binet developed the first set of such tests in the early 1900s to find out which children in school needed special attention.
E. Intelligence can be measured by tests.
1. CDABE
2. DECAB
3. EDACB
4. CBADE

DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to 13: Read each of the eight short passages given below and answer the question that follows it.

6. Three airlines - IA, JA and SA - operate on the Delhi-Mumbai route. To increase the number of seats sold, SA reduced its fares and this was emulated by IA and JA immediately. The general belief was that the volume of air travel between Delhi and Mumbai would increase as a result.
Which of the following, if true, would add credence to the general belief?
I. Increase in profitability of the three airlines.
2. Extension of the discount scheme to other routes.
3. A study that shows that air travellers in India are price-conscious.
4. A study that shows that as much as 80% of air travel in India is company-sponsored.

7. According to McNeill, a Brahmin priest was expected to be able to recite at least one of the Vedas. The practice was essential for several centuries when the Vedas had not yet been written down. It must have had a selective effect, since priests would have been recruited from those able or willing to memorize long passages. It must have helped in the dissemination of the work, since a memorized passage can be duplicated many times.
Which one of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
I. Reciting the Vedas was a Brahmin's obligation.
2. The Vedic priest was like a recorded audio cassette.
3. McNeill studied the behaviour of Brahmin priests.
4. Vedic hymns had not been scripted.

8. Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security for senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer medicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditional shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a State faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So, it is advisable that the working population give serious thought to building a financial base for itself.
Which one of the following, if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage the most?
1. The investable income of the working population, as a proportion of its total income, will grow in the future.
2. The insurance sector is underdeveloped and trends indicate that it will be extensively privatized in the future.
3. India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country status, with all its positive and negative implications.
4. If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be a revival of the joint family system.

9. Various studies have shown that our forested and hilly regions and, in general, areas where biodiversity—as reflected in the variety of flora—is high, are the places where poverty appears to be high. And these same areas are also the ones where educational performance seems to be poor. Therefore, it may be surmised that, even disregarding poverty status, richness in biodiversity goes hand in hand with educational backwardness.
Which one of the following statements, if true, can be said to best provide supporting evidence for the surmise mentioned in the passage?
1. In regions where there is little variety in flora, educational performance is seen to be as good as in regions with high variety in flora, when poverty levels are high.
2. Regions which show high biodiversity also exhibit poor educational performance, at low levels of poverty.
3. Regions which show high biodiversity reveal high levels of poverty and poor educational performance.
4. In regions where there is low biodiversity, at all levels of poverty, educational performance is seen to be good.


10. Cigarettes constitute a mere 20% of tobacco consumption in India, and fewer than 15% of the 200 million tobacco users consume cigarettes., Yet these 15% contribute nearly 90% of the tax revenues to the Exchequer from the tobacco sector. The punitive cigarette taxation regime has kept the tax base narrow, and reducing taxes will expand this base.
Which one of the following best bolsters the conclusion that reducing duties will expand the tax base'?
1. The cigarette manufacturers’ association has decided to indulge in aggressive promotion.
2. There is a likelihood that tobacco consumers will shift to cigarette smoking if cigarette prices were to reduce.
3. The cigarette manufacturers are lobbying for a reduction on duties.
4. An increase in duties on non-cigarette tobacco may lead to a shift in favour of cigarette smoking.

11. Thomas Malthus, the British clergyman turned economist, predicted that the planet would not be able to support the human population for long. His explanation was that human population grows at a geometric rate, while the food supply grows only at an arithmetic rate.
Which one of the following, if true, would not undermine the thesis offered by Malthus?
1. Population growth can be slowed down by the voluntary choices of individuals and not just by natural disasters.
2. The capacity of the planet to feed a growing human population can be enhanced through biotechnological means.
3. Human systems, and natural systems like food supply, follow natural laws of growth which have remained constant, and will remain unchanged.
4. Human beings can colonize other planetary systems on a regular and on-going basis to accommodate a growing population.

12. The company's coffee crop for 1998-99 totalled 8079 tonnes, an all time record. The increase over the previous year's production of 5830 tonnes was 38.58%. The previous highest crop was 6089 tonnes in 1970-7 1. The company had fixed a target of 8000 tonnes to be realized by the year 2000-01, and this has been achieved two years earlier, thanks to the emphasis laid on the key areas of irrigation, replacement of unproductive coffee bushes, intensive refilling and improved agricultural practices. It is now our endeavour to reach the target of 10000 tonnes in the year 2001-02.
Which one of the following would contribute most to making the target of I 0000 tonnes in 2001-02 unrealistic?
1. The potential of the productivity enhancing measures implemented up to now has been exhausted.
2. The total company land under coffee has remained constant since 1969 when an estate in the Nilgiri Hills was acquired.
3. The sensitivity of the crop to climatic factors makes predictions about production uncertain.
4. The target-setting procedures in the company have been proved to be sound by the achievement of the 8000 tonne target.

13. Animals in general are shrewd in proportion as they cultivate society. Elephants and beavers show the greatest signs of this sagacity when they are together in large numbers, but when man invades their communities they lose all their spirit of industry. Among insects, the labours of the bee and the ant have attracted the attention and admiration of naturalists, but all their sagacity seems to be lost upon separation, and a single bee or ant seems destitute of every degree of industry. It becomes the most stupid insect imaginable,, and it languishes and soon dies.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
1. Humankind is responsible for the destruction of the natural habitat of animals and insects.
2. Animals, in general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social environment.
3. Naturalists have great admiration for bees and ants, despite their lack of industry upon separation.
4. Elephants and beavers are smarter than bees and ants in the presence of human beings.

DIRECTIONS for questions 14 and 15: For each of the two questions, indicate which of the statements given, with that particular question is consistent with the description of the unseasonable man in the passage below.

Unseasonableness is a tendency to do socially permissible things at the wrong time. The unseasonable man is the sort of person who comes to confide in you when you are busy. He serenades his beloved when she is ill. He asks a man who has just lost money by paying a bill for a friend to pay a bi II for him. He invites a friend to go for a ride just after the friend has finished a long car trip. He is eager to offer services which are not wanted but which cannot be politely refused. If he is present at an arbitration, he stirs up dissension between the two parties, who were really anxious to agree. Such is the unseasonable man.
14. He tends to
1. entertain women.
2. be a successful arbitrator when dissenting parties are anxious to agree.
3. be helpful when solicited.
4. tell a long story to people who have heard it many times before.

15. The unseasonable man tends to
1. bring a higher bidder to a salesman who has just closed a deal.
2. disclose confidential information to others.
3. sing the praises of the bride when he goes to a wedding.
4. sleep late and rise early.

DIRECTIONS for questions 16 to 23: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative from among the four.

16. It was us who had left before he arrived.
1. we who had left before time he had arrived.
2. us who had went before he arrived.
3. us who had went before had arrived.
4. we who had left before he arrived.

17. The MP rose up to say that, in her opinion, she thought the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on unanimously.
1. rose to say that she thought the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed
2. rose up to say that, the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on
3. rose to say that, in her opinion, she thought that the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed
4. rose to say that, in her opinion, the Women's Reservation Bill should be passed on

18. Mr. Pillai, the president of the union and who is also a member of the community group, will be in charge of the negotiations.
1. since he is a member of the community group
2. also being a member of the community group
3. a member of the community group
4. , in addition, who is a member of the community group

19. Since the advent of cable television, at the beginning of this decade, the entertainment industry took a giant stride forward in our country.
1. this decade saw the entertainment industry taking
2. this decade, the entertainment industry has taken
3. this decade, the entertainment industry had taken
4. this decade, the entertainment industry took

20. His mother made great sacrifices to educate him, moving house on three occasions, and severing the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.
1. severing the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.
2. severed the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need to persevere.
3. severed the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons to make him understand the need for persevering.
4. severing the thread on her loom's shuttle whenever Mencius neglected his lessons, to make them understand the need to persevere.

21. If you are on a three-month software design project and, in two weeks, you've put together a programme that solves part of the problem, show it to your boss without delay.
1. and, you've put together a programme that solves part of the problem in two weeks
2. and, in two weeks, you've put together a programme that solves part of the problem
3. and, you've put together a programme that has solved part of the problem in two weeks
4. and, in two weeks you put together a programme that solved only part of the problem

22. Many of these environmentalists proclaim to save nothing less than the planet itself.
1. to save nothing lesser than
2. that they are saving nothing lesser than
3. to save nothing less than
4. that they save nothing less than

23. Bacon believes that the medical profession should be permitted to ease and quicken death where the end would otherwise only delay for a few days and at the cost of great pain.
1. be delayed for a few days
2. be delayed for a few days and
3. be otherwise only delayed for a few days and
4. otherwise only delay for a few days and

DIRECTIONS for questions 24 to 50: Each of the five passages given below is followed by questions. For each question, choose the best answer.

PASSAGE I

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as a component of the Uruguay Round negotiation. However, it could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970s, since that negotiation was an attempt at a 'constitutional reform' of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US government wanted. What factors led to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s?
One factor was the pattern of multilateral bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements, the WTO was a product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups. For the United States, which did not want a new Organisation, the dispute settlement part of the WTO package achieved its longstanding goal of a more effective and more legal dispute settlement system. For the Europeans, who by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms and more as a regime of legal obligations, the WTO package was acceptable as a means to discipline the resort to unilateral measures by the United States. Countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners were attracted by the expansion of a rulesbased system and by the symbolic value of a trade Organisation, both of which inherently support the weak against the strong. The developing countries were attracted due to the provisions banning uni 'lateral measures. Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO and a rules-based system with those gains. This reasoning - replicated in many countries - was contained in U.S. Ambassador Kantor's defence of the WTO, and it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based environment.
A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal process. The dispute settlement system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalists over pragmatists but the matter went deeper than that. The GATT, and the WTO, are contract organisations based on rules, and it is inevitable that an Organisation created to further rules will in turn be influenced by the legal process. Robert Hudec has written of the 'momentum of legal development', but what is this precisely? Legal development can be defined as promotion of the technical legal values of consistency, clarity (or, certainty) and effectiveness; these are values that those responsible for administering any legal system will seek to maximise. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrating under one roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers; and effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather-rights and resolving defects in dispute settlement procedures and institutional provisions. Concern for these values is inherent in any rules-based system of co-operation, since without these values rules would be meaningless in the first place. Rules, therefore, create their own incentive for fulfilment.
The momentum of legal development has occurred in other institutions besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union (EU). Over the past two decades the European Court of Justice (ECJ) has consistently rendered decisions that have expanded incrementally the EU's internal market, in which the doctrine of 'mutual recognition' handed down in the case Cassis de Dijon in 1979 was a key turning point. The Court is now widely recognised as a major player in European integration, even though arguably such a strong role was not originally envisaged in the Treaty of Rome, which initiated the current European Union. One means the Court used to expand integration was the 'teleological method of interpretation', whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against 'the accomplishment of the most elementary community goals set forth in the Preamble to the [Rome] treaty'. The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with stated goals, and it is analogous to the effort in GATT to keep contracting party trade practices consistent with stated rules. In both cases legal concerns and procedures are an independent force for further cooperation.
In large part the WTO was an exercise in consolidation. In the context of a trade negotiation that created a near- revolutionary expansion of international trade rules, the formation of the WTO was a deeply conservative act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules would not be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement: these are the concerns of conservatives and not revolutionaries, which is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues. The WTO codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham. Both the international structure and the dispute settlement system were necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the multilateral trade regime that had been built incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.

24. What could be the closest reason why the WTO was not formed in the 1970s?
1. The US government did not like it.
2. Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.
3. Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.
4. The Tokyo Round negotiation was an attempt at constitutional reform.

25. The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that
1. it had the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.
2. they recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.
3. it settles disputes more legally and more effectively.
4. its rule-based system leads to export gains.

26. According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly through
1. integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.
2. rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.
3. grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures.
4. ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.

27. In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice,
1. current policies needed to be consistent with stated goals.
2. contracting party trade practices needed to be consistent with stated rules.
3. enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized.
4. actions of member states needed to be evaluated against the stated community goals.

28. In the statement "...it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based environment.", ‘it' refers to:
1. Ambassador Kantor's defence of the WTO.
2. The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round.
3. The export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system.
4. The provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.

29. The importance of Cassis de Dijon is that it
1. gave a new impetus to the momentum of legal development at the European Court of Justice.
2. resulted in a decision that expanded incrementally the EU's internal market.
3. strengthened the role of the Court more than envisaged in the Treaty of Rome.
4. led to a doctrine that was a key turning point in European integration.


PASSAGE II

Have you ever come across a painting, by Picasso, Mondrian, Miro, or any other modem abstract painter of this century, and found yourself engulfed in a brightly coloured canvas which your senses cannot interpret? Many people would tend to denounce abstractionism as senseless trash. These people are disoriented by Miro's bright, fanciful creatures and two- dimensional canvases. They click their tongues and shake their heads at Mondrian's grid works, declaring the poor guy played too many scrabble games. They silently shake their heads in sympathy for Picasso, whose gruesome, distorted figures must be a reflection of his mental health. Then, standing in front of a work by Charlie Russell, the famous Western artist, they'll declare it a work of God. People feel more comfortable with something they can relate to and understand immediately without too much thought. This is the case with the work of Charlie Russell. Being able to recognize the elements in his paintings--trees, horses and cowboys-gives people a safety line to their world of "reality". There are some who would disagree when I say abstract art requires more creativity and artistic talent to produce a good piece than does representational art, but there are many weaknesses in their arguments.
People who look down on abstract art have several major arguments to support their beliefs. They feel that artists turn abstract because they are not capable of the technical drafting skills that appear in a Russell; therefore, such artists create an art form that anyone is capable of and that is less time consuming, and then parade it as artistic progress. Secondly, they feel that the purpose of art is to create something of beauty in an orderly, logical composition. Russell's compositions are balanced and rational, everything sits calmly on the canvas, leaving the viewer satisfied that he has seen all there is to see. The modem abstractionists, on the other hand, seem to compose their pieces irrationally. For example, upon seeing Picasso's Guernica, a friend of mine asked me, "What's the point?" Finally, many people feel that art should portray the ideal and real. The exactness of detail in Charlie Russell's work is an example of this. He has been called a great historian because his pieces depict the life style, dress, and events of the times. His subject matter is derived from his own experiences on the trail, and reproduced to the smallest detail.
I agree in part with many of these arguments, and at one time even endorsed them. But now, I believe differently. Firstly I object to the argument that abstract artists are not capable of drafting. Many abstract artists, such as Picasso, are excellent draftsmen. As his work matured, Picasso became more abstract in order to increase the expressive quality of his work. Guernica was meant as a protest against the bombing of that city by the Germans. To express the terror and suffering of the victims more vividly, he distorted the figures and presented them in a black and white journalistic manner. If he had used representational images and colour, much of the emotional content would have been lost and the piece would not have caused the demand for justice that it did. Secondly, I do not think that a piece must be logical and aesthetically pleasing to be art. The message it conveys to its viewers is more important. It should reflect the ideals and issues of its time and be true to itself, not just a flowery, glossy surface. For example, through his work, Mondrian was trying to present a system of simplicity, logic, and rational order. As a result, his pieces did end up looking like a scrabble board.
Miro created powerful, surrealistic images from his dreams and subconscious. These artists were trying to evoke a response from society through an expressionistic manner. Finally,-abstract artists and representational artists maintain different ideas about 'reality'. To the representational artist, reality is what he sees with his eyes. This is the reality he reproduces on canvas. To the abstract artist, reality is what he feels about what his eyes see. This is the reality he interprets on canvas. This can be illustrated by Mondrian's Trees series. You can actually see the progression from the early recognizable, though abstracted, Trees, to his final solution, the grid system.
A cycle of abstract and representational art began with the first scratchings of prehistoric man. From the abstractions of ancient Egypt to representational, classical Rome, returning to abstractionism in early Christian art and so on up to the present day, the cycle has been going on. But this day and age may witness its death through the camera. With film, there is no need to produce finely detailed, historical records manually; the camera does this for us more efficiently. Maybe, representational art would cease to exist. With abstractionism as the victor of the first battle, may be a different kind of cycle will be touched off. Possibly, some time in the distant future, thousands of years from now, art itself will be physically non- existent. Some artists today believe that once they have planned and constructed a piece in their mind, there is no sense in finishing it with their hands; it has already been done and can never be duplicated.

30. The author argues that many people look down upon abstract art because they feel that:
1. Modem abstract art does not portray what is ideal and real.
2. Abstract artists are unskilled in matters of technical drafting.
3. Abstractionists compose irrationally.
4. All of the above.

31. The author believes that people feel comfortable with representational art because:
1. they are not engulfed in brightly coloured canvases.
2. they do not have to click their tongues and shake their heads in sympathy.
3. they understand the art without putting too much strain on their minds.
4. paintings like Guernica do not have a point.

32. In the author's opinion, Picasso's Guernica created a strong demand for justice since
1. it was a protest against the German bombing of Guernica.
2. Picasso managed to express the emotional content well with his abstract depiction.
3. it depicts the terror and suffering of the victims in a distorted manner.
4. it was a mature work of Picasso's, painted when the artist's drafting skills were excellent.

33. The author acknowledges that Mondrian's pieces may have ended up looking like a scrabble board because
1. many people declared the poor guy played too many scrabble games.
2. Mondrian believed in the 'grid-works' approach to abstractionist painting.
3. Mondrian was trying to convey the message of simplicity and rational order.
4. Mondrian learned from his Trees series to evolve a grid system.

34. The main difference between the abstract artist and the representational artist in matters of the 'ideal' and the 'real', according to the author, is:
1. How each chooses to deal with 'reality' on his or her canvas.
2. The superiority of interpretation of reality over reproduction of reality.
3. The different values attached by each to being a historian.
4. The varying levels of drafting skills and logical thinking abilities.


PASSAGE III

Each one has his reasons: for one art is a flight; for another, a means of conquering. But one can flee into a hermitage, into madness, into death. One can conquer by arms. Why does it have to be writing, why does one have to manage his escapes and conquests by writing? Because, behind the various alms of authors, there is a deeper and more immediate choice which is common to all of us. We shall try to elucidate this choice, and we shall see whether it is not in the name of this very choice of writing that the engagement of writers must be required.
Each of our perceptions is accompanied by the consciousness that human reality is a 'revealer', that is, it is through human reality that 'there is' being, or, to put it differently, that man is the means by which things are manifested. It is our presence in the world which multiplies relations. It is we who set up a relationship between this tree and that bit of sky. Thanks to us, that star which has been dead for millenia, that quarter moon, and that dark river are disclosed in the unity of a landscape. It is the speed of our auto and our airplane which organizes the great masses of the earth. With each of our acts, the world reveals to us a new face. But, if we know that we are directors of being, we also know that we are not its producers. If we turn away from this landscape, it will sink back into its dark permanence. At least, it will sink back; there is no one mad enough to think that it is going to be annihilated. It is we who shall be annihilated, and the earth will remain in its lethargy until another consciousness comes along to awaken it. Thus, to our inner certainty of being 'revealers' is added that of being inessential in relation to the thing revealed.
One of the chief motives of artistic creation is certainly the need of feeling that we are essential in relationship to the world. If I fix on canvas or in writing a certain aspect of the fields or the sea or a look on someone's face which I have disclosed, I am conscious of having produced them by condensing relationships, by introducing order where there was none, by imposing the unity of mind on the diversity of things. That is, I think myself essential in relation to my creation. But this time it is the created object which escapes me; I can not reveal and produce at the same time. The creation becomes inessential in relation to the creative activity. First of all, even if it appears to others as definitive, the created object always seems to us in a state of suspension; we can always change this line, that shade, that word. Thus, it never forces itself. A novice painter asked his teacher, 'When should I consider my painting finished?' And the teacher answered, 'When you can look at it in amazement and say to yourself "I'm the one who did that!...
Which amounts to saying 'never'. For it is virtually considering one's work with someone else's eyes and revealing what has been created. But it is self-evident that we are proportionally less conscious of the thing produced and more conscious of our productive activity. When it is a matter of poetry or carpentry, we work according to traditional nonns, with tools whose usage is codified; it is Heidegger's famous 'they' who are working with our hands. In this case, the result can seem to us sufficiently strange to preserve its objectivity in our eyes. But if we ourselves produce the rules of production, the measures, the criteria, and if our creative drive comes from the very depths of our heart, then we never find anything but ourselves in our work. It is we who have invented the laws by which we judge it. It is our history, our love, our gaiety that we recognize in it. Even if we should regard it without touching it any further, we never receive from it that gaiety or love. We put them into it. The results which we have obtained on canvas or paper never seem to us objective. We are too familiar with the processes of which they are the effects. These processes remain a subjective discovery; they are ourselves, our inspiration, our ruse, and when we seek to perceive our work, we create it again, we repeat mentally the operations which produced it; each of its aspects appears as a result. Thus, in the perception, the object is given as the essential thing and the subject as the inessential. The latter seeks essentiality in the creation and obtains it, but then it is the object which becomes the inessential.
The dialectic is nowhere more apparent than in the art of writing, for the literary object is a peculiar top which exists only in movement. To make it come into view a concrete act called reading is necessary, and it lasts only as long as this act can last. Beyond that, there are only black marks on paper. Now, the writer can not read what be writes, whereas the shoemaker can put on the shoes he has just made if they are to his size, and the architect can live in the house he has built. In reading, one foresees; one waits. He foresees the end of the sentence, the following sentence, the next page. He waits for them to confirm or disappoint his foresights. The reading is composed of a host of hypotheses, followed by awakenings, of hopes and deceptions, Readers are always ahead of the sentence they are reading in a merely probable future which partly collapses and partly comes together in proportion as they progress, which withdraws from one page to the next and forms the moving horizon of the literary object. Without waiting, without a future, without ignorance, there is no objectivity.

35. The author holds that:
1. There is an objective reality and a subjective reality.
2. Nature is the sum total of disparate elements.
3. It is human action that reveals the various facets of nature.
4. Apparently disconnected elements in nature are unified in a fundamental sense.

36. It is the author's contention that:
1. Artistic creations are results of human consciousness.
2. The very act of artistic creation leads to the escape of the created object.
3. Man can produce and reveal at the same time.
4. An act of creation forces itself on our consciousness leaving us full of amazement.

37. The passage makes a distinction between perception and creation in terms of
1. Objectivity and subjectivity.
2. Revelation and action.
3. Objective reality and perceived reality.
4. Essentiality and non-essentiality of objects and subjects.

38. The art of writing manifests the dialectic of perception and creation because
1. reading reveals the writing till the act of reading lasts.
2. writing to be meaningful needs the concrete act of reading.
3. this art is anticipated and progresses on a series of hypotheses.
4. this literary object has a moving horizon brought about by the very act of creation.

39. A writer, as an artist,
1. reveals the essentiality of revelation.
2. makes us feel essential vis-d-vis nature.
3. creates reality.
4. reveals nature in its permanence.


PASSAGE IV

Since World War II, the nation-state has been regarded with approval by every political system and every ideology. In the name of modernisation in the West, of socialism in the Eastern bloc, and of development in the Third World, it was expected to guarantee the happiness of individuals as citizens and of peoples as societies. However, the state today appears to have broken down in many parts of the world. It has failed to guarantee either security or social justice, and has been unable to prevent either international wars or civil wars. Disturbed by the claims of communities within it, the nation-state tries to repress their demands and to proclaim itself as the only guarantor of security of all. In the name of national unity, territorial integrity, equality of all its citizens and non-partisan secularism, the state can use its powerful resources to reject the demands of the communities; it may even go so far as genocide to ensure that order prevails.
As one observes the awakening of communities in different parts of the world, one cannot ignore the context in which identity issues arise. It is no longer a context of sealed frontiers and isolated regions but is one of integrated global systems. In a reaction to this trend towards globalisation, individuals and communities everywhere are voicing their desire to exist, to use their power of creation and to play an active part in national and international life.
There are two ways in which the current upsurge in demands for the recognition of identities can be looked at. On the positive side, the efforts by certain population groups to assert their identity can be regarded as "liberation movements", challenging oppression and injustice. What these groups are doing - proclaiming that they are different, rediscovering the roots of their culture or strengthening group solidarity - may accordingly be seen as legitimate attempts to escape from their state of subjugation and enjoy a certain measure of dignity. On the downside, however, militant action for recognition tends to make such groups more deeply entrenched in their attitude and to make their cultural compartments even more watertight. The assertion of identity then starts turning into self-absorption and isolation, and is liable to slide into intolerance of others and towards ideas of "ethnic cleansing", xenophobia and violence.
Whereas continuous variations among peoples prevent drawing of clear dividing lines between the groups, those militating for recognition of their group's identity arbitrarily choose a limited number of criteria such as religion, language, skin colour, and place of origin so that their members recognise themselves primarily in terms of the labels attached to the group whose existence is being asserted. This distinction between the group in question and other groups is established by simplifying the feature selected. Simplification also works by transforming groups into essences, abstractions endowed with the capacity to remain unchanged through time. In some cases, people actually act as though the group has remained unchanged and talk, for example, about the history of nations and communities as if these entities survived for centuries without changing, with the same ways of acting and thinking, the same desires, anxieties, and aspirations.
Paradoxically, precisely because identity represents a simplifying fiction, creating uniform groups out of disparate people, that identity performs a cognitive function. It enables us to put names to ourselves and others, form some idea of who we are and who others are, and ascertain the place we occupy along with the others in the world and society. The current upsurge to assert the identity of groups can thus be partly explained by the cognitive function performed by identity. However, that said, people would not go along as they do, often in large numbers, with the propositions put to them, in spite of the sacrifices they entail, if there was not a very strong feeling of need for identity, a need to take stock of things and know "who we are", "where we come from", and "where we are going".
Identity is thus a necessity in a constantly changing world, but it can also be a potent source of' violence and disruption. How can these two contradictory aspects of identity be reconciled? First, we must bear the arbitrary nature of identity categories in mind, not with a view to eliminating all forms of identification—which would be unrealistic since identity is a cognitive necessity—but simply to remind ourselves that each of us has several identities at the same time. Second, since tears of nostalgia are being shed over the past, we recognise that culture is constantly being recreated by cobbling together fresh and original elements and counter-cultures. There are in our own country a large number of syncretic cults wherein modem elements are blended with traditional values or people of different communities venerate saints or divinities of particular faiths. Such cults and movements are characterised by a continual inflow and outflow of members which prevent them from taking on a self-perpetuating existence of their own and hold out hope for the future, indeed, perhaps for the only possible future. Finally, the nation-state must respond to the identity urges of its constituent communities and to their legitimate quest for security and social justice. It must do so by inventing what the French philosopher and sociologist, Raymond Aron, called "peace through law". That would guarantee justice both to the state as a whole and its parts, and respect the claims of both reason and emotions. The problem is one of reconciling nationalist demands with the exercise of democracy.

40. According to the author, happiness of individuals was expected to be guaranteed in the name of:
1. Development in the Third world.
2. Socialism in the Third world.
3. Development in the West.
4. Modernisation in the Eastern Bloc.

41. Demands for recognition of identities can be viewed:
1. Positively and negatively.
2. As liberation movements and militant action.
3. As efforts to rediscover cultural roots which can slide towards intolerance of others.
4. All of the above.

42. Going by the author's exposition of the nature of identity, which of the following statements is untrue?
1. Identity represents creating uniform groups out of disparate people.
2. Identity is a necessity in the changing world.
3. Identity is a cognitive necessity.
4. None of the above.

43. According to the author, the nation-state
1. has fulfilled its potential.
2. is willing to do anything to preserve order.
3. generates security for all its citizens.
4. has been a major force in preventing civil and international wars.

44. Which of the following views of the nation-state cannot be attributed to the author?
1. It has not guaranteed peace and security.
2. It may go as far as genocide for self-preservation.
3. It represents the demands of communities within it.
4. It is unable to prevent international wars.


PASSAGE V

The persistent patterns in the way nations fight reflect their cultural and historical traditions and deeply rooted attitudes that collectively make up their strategic culture. These patterns provide insights that go beyond what can be learnt just by comparing armaments and divisions. In the Vietnam War, the strategic tradition of the United States called for forcing the enemy to fight a massed battle in an open area, where superior American weapons would prevail. The United States was trying to re-fight World War II in the jungles of Southeast Asia, against an enemy with no intention of doing so.
Some British military historians describe the Asian way of war as one of indirect attacks, avoiding frontal attacks meant to overpower an opponent. This traces back to Asian history and geography: the great distances and harsh terrain have often made it difficult to execute the sort of open field clashes allowed by the flat terrain and relatively compact size of Europe. A very different strategic tradition arose in Asia.
The bow and arrow were metaphors for an Eastern way of war. By its nature, the arrow is an indirect weapon. Fired from a distance of hundreds of yards, it does not necessitate immediate physical contact with the enemy. Thus, it can be fired from hidden positions. When fired from behind a ridge, the barrage seems to come out of nowhere, taking the enemy by surprise. The tradition of this kind of fighting is captured in the classical strategic writings of the East. The 2,000 years' worth of Chinese writings on war constitutes the most subtle writings on the subject in any language. Not until Clausewitz, did the West produce a strategic theorist to match the sophistication of Sun-tzu, whose Art of War was written 2,300 years earlier.
In Sun-tzu and other Chinese writings, the highest achievement of arms is to defeat an adversary without fighting. He wrote: "To win one hundred victories in one hundred battles is not the acme of skill. To subdue the enemy without fighting is the supreme excellence." Actual combat is just one among many means towards the goal of subduing an adversary. War contains too many surprises to be a first resort. It can lead to ruinous losses, as has been seen time and again. It can have the unwanted effect of inspiring heroic efforts in an enemy, as the United States learned in Vietnam, and as the Japanese found out after Pearl Harbor.
Aware of the uncertainties of a military campaign, Sun-tzu advocated war only after the most thorough preparations. Even then it should be quick and clean. Ideally, the army is just an instrument to deal the final blow to an enemy already weakened by isolation, poor morale, and disunity. Ever since Sun-tzu, the Chinese have been seen as masters of -subtlety who take measured actions to manipulate an adversary without his knowledge. The dividing line between war and peace can be obscure. Low level violence often is the backdrop to a larger strategic campaign. The unwitting victim, focused on the day-to-day events, never realizes what's happening to him until it's too late. History holds many examples. The Viet Cong lured French and U.S. infantry deep into the jungle, weakening their morale over several years. The mobile army of the United States was designed to fight on the plains of Europe, where it could quickly move unhindered from one spot to the next. The jungle did more than make quick movement impossible; broken down into smaller units and scattered in isolated bases, US forces were deprived of the feeling of support and protection that ordinarily comes from being part of a big army.
The isolation of U.S. troops in Vietnam was not just a logistical 'detail, something that could be overcome by, for instance, bringing in reinforcements by helicopter. In a big army reinforcements are readily available. It was Napoleon who realized the extraordinary effects on morale that come from being part of a larger formation. Just the knowledge of it lowers the soldier's fear and increases his aggressiveness. In the jungle and on isolated bases, this feeling was removed. The thick vegetation slowed down the reinforcements and made it difficult to find stranded units. Soldiers felt they were on their own.
More important, by altering the way the war was fought, the Viet Cong stripped the United States of its belief in the inevitability of victory, as it had done to the French before them. Morale was high when these armies first went to Vietnam. Only after many years of debilitating and demoralizing fighting did Hanoi launch its decisive attacks, at Dienbienphu in 1954 and against Saigon in 1975. It should be recalled that in the final push to victory the North Vietnamese abandoned their jungle guerrilla tactics completely, committing their entire army of twenty divisions to pushing the South Vietnamese into collapse. This final battle, with the enemy's army all in one place, was the one that the United States had desperately wanted to fight in 1965. When it did come out into the open in 1975, Washington had already withdrawn its forces and there was no possibility of re-intervention.
The Japanese early in World War 11 used a modem form of the indirect attack, one that relied on stealth and surprise for its effect. At Pearl Harbor, in the Philippines, and in Southeast Asia, stealth and surprise were attained by sailing under radio silence so that the navy's movements could not be tracked. Moving troops aboard ships into Southeast Asia made it appear that the Japanese army was also "invisible." Attacks against Hawaii and Singapore seemed, to the American and British defenders, to come from nowhere. In Indonesia and the Philippines the Japanese attack was even faster than the German blitz against France in the West.
The greatest military surprises in American history have all been in Asia. Surely there is something going on here beyond the purely technical difficulties of detecting enemy movements. Pearl Harbor, the Chinese intervention in Korea, and the Tet offensive in Vietnam all came out of a tradition of surprise and stealth. U.S. technical intelligence – the location of enemy units and their movements was greatly improved after each surprise, but with no noticeable improvement in the American ability to foresee or prepare what would happen next. There is a cultural divide here, not just a technical one. Even when it was possible to track an army with intelligence satellites, as when Iraq invaded Kuwait or when Syria and Egypt attacked Israel, surprise was achieved. The United States was stunned by Iraq's attack on Kuwait even though it had satellite pictures of Iraqi troops massing at the border.
The exception that proves the point that cultural differences obscure the West's understanding of Asian behavior was the Soviet Union's 1979 invasion of Afghanistan. This was fully anticipated and understood in advance. There was no surprise because the United States understood Moscow's world view and thinking. It could anticipate Soviet action almost as well as the Soviets themselves, because the Soviet Union was really a Western country.
The difference between the Eastern and the Western way of war is striking. The West's great strategic writer, Clausewitz, linked war to politics, as did Sun-tzu. Both were opponents of militarism, of turning war over to the generals. But there all similarity ends. Clausewitz wrote that the way to achieve a larger political purpose is through destruction of the enemy's army. After observing Napoleon conquer Europe by smashing enemy armies to bits, Clausewitz made his famous remark in On War (1932) that combat is the continuation of politics by violent means. Morale and unity are important, but they should be harnessed for the ultimate battle. If the Eastern way of war is embodied by the stealthy archer, the metaphorical Western counterpart is the swordsman charging forward, seeking a decisive showdown, eager to administer the blow that will obliterate the enemy once and for all. In this view, war proceeds along a fixed course and occupies a finite extent of time, like a play in three acts with a beginning, a middle, and an end. The end, the final scene, decides the issue for good.
When things don't work out quite this way, the Western military mind feels tremendous frustration. Sun-tzu's great disciples, Mao Zedong and Ho Chi Minh, are respected in Asia for their clever use of indirection and deception to achieve an advantage over stronger adversaries. But in the West their approach is seen as underhanded and devious. To the American strategic mind, the Viet Cong guerrilla did not fight fairly. He should have come out into the open and fought like a man, instead of hiding in the jungle and sneaking around like a cat in the night.

45. According to the author, the main reason for the U.S. losing the Vietnam war was
1. the Vietnamese understood the local terrain better.
2. the lack of support for the war from the American people.
3. the failure of the U.S. to mobilize its military strength.
4. their inability to fight a war on terms other than those they understood well.

46. Which of the following statements does not describe the 'Asian' way of war?
1. Indirect attacks without frontal attacks.
2. The swordsman charging forward to obliterate the enemy once and for all.
3. Manipulation of an adversary without his knowledge.
4. Subduing an enemy without fighting.

47. Which of the following is not one of Sun-tzu's ideas?
1. Actual combat is the principal means of subduing an adversary.
2. War should be undertaken only after thorough preparation.
3. War is linked to politics.
4. War should not be left to the generals alone.

48. The difference in the concepts of war of Clausewitz and Sun-tzu is best characterized by
1. Clausewitz's support for militarism as against Sun-tzu's opposition to it.
2. their relative degrees of sophistication.
3. their attitude to guerrilla warfare.
4. their differing conceptions of the structure, time and sequence of a war.

49. To the Americans, the approach of the Viet Cong seemed devious because
1. the Viet Cong did not fight like men out in the open.
2. the Viet Cong allied with America's enemies.
3. the Viet Cong took strategic advice from Mao Zedong.
4. the Viet Cong used bows and arrows rather than conventional weapons.

50. According to the author, the greatest military surprises in American history have been in Asia because
1. The Americans failed to implement their military strategies many miles away from their own country.
2. The Americans were unable to use their technologies like intelligence satellites effectively to detect enemy movements.
3. The Americans failed to understand the Asian culture of war that was based on stealth and surprise.
4. Clausewitz is inferior to Sun-tzu.


DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 55: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1 and 6.

51.
1. Making people laugh is tricky.
A. At times, the intended humour may simply not come off.
B. Making people laugh while trying to sell them something is a tougher challenge, since the commercial can fall flat on two grounds.
C. There are many advertisements which do amuse but do not even begin to set the cash ti ills ringing.
D. Again, it is rarely sufficient for an advertiser simply to amuse the target audience in order to reap the sales benefit.
6. There are indications that in substituting the hard sell for a more entertaining approach, some agencies have rather thrown out the baby with the bath water.
1. CDBA
2. ABCD
3. BADC
4. DCBA

52.
1. Picture a termite colony, occupying a tall mud hump on an African plain.
A. Hungry predators often invade the colony and unsettle the balance.
B. The colony flourishes only if the proportion of soldiers to workers remains roughly the same, so that the queen and workers can be protected by the soldiers, and the queen and soldiers can be serviced by the workers.
C. But its fortunes are presently restored, because the immobile queen, walled in well below ground level, lays eggs not only in large enough numbers, but also in the varying proportions required.
D. The hump is alive with worker termites and soldier termites going about their distinct kinds of business.
6. How can we account for her mysterious ability to respond like this to events on the distant surface?
1. BADC
2. DBAC
3. ADCB
4. BDCA

53.
1. According to recent research, the critical period for developing language skills is between the ages of three and five and a half years.
A. The read-to child already has a large vocabulary and a sense of grammar and sentence structure.
B. Children who are read to in these years have a far better chance of reading well in school, indeed, of doing well in all their subjects.
C. And the reason is actually quite simple.
D. This correlation is far and away the highest yet found between home influences and school success.
6. Her comprehension of language is therefore very high.
1. DACB
2. ADCB
3. ABCD
4. BDCA

54.
1. High-powered outboard motors were considered to be one of the major threats to the survival of the Beluga whales.
A. With these, hunters could approach Belugas within hunting range and profit from its inner skin and blubber.
B. To escape an approaching motor, Belugas have learned to dive to the ocean bottom and stay there for up to 20 minutes, by which time the confused predator has left.
C. Today, however, even with much more powerful engines, it is difficult to come close, because the whales seem to disappear suddenly just when you thought you had them in your sights.
D. When the first outboard engines arrived in the early 1930s, one came across 4 and 8 HP motors.
6. Belugas seem to have used their well-known sensitivity to noise to evolve an ‘avoidance' strategy to outsmart hunters and their powerful technologies.
1. DACB
2. CDAB
3. ADBC
4. BDAC

55.
1. The reconstruction of history by post-revolutionary science texts involves more than a multiplication of historical misconstructions.
A. Because they aim quickly to acquaint the student with what the contemporary scientific community thinks it knows, textbooks treat the various experiments, concepts, laws and theories of the current normal science as separately and as nearly seriatim as possible.
B. Those misconstructions render revolutions invisible; the arrangement of the still visible material in science texts implies a process that, if it existed, would deny revolutions a function.
C. But when combined with the generally unhistorical air of science writing and with the occasional systematic misconstruction, one impression is likely to follow.
D. As pedagogy this technique of presentation is unexceptionable.
6. Science has reached its present state by a series of individual discoveries and inventions that, when gathered together, constitute the modem body of technical knowledge.
1. BADC
2. ADCB
3. DACB
4. CBDA

End of Section I



SECTION II
Number of questions: 55

DIRECTIONS for questions 56 to 74: Answer each of the questions independently.

56. The number of positive integer valued pairs (x, y), satisfying 4x - 17 y = I and x < 1000 is:
1. 59
2. 57
3. 55
4. 58

57. Let a, b, c be distinct digits. Consider a two digit number 'ab' and a three digit number 'ccb', both defined under the usual decimal number system. If
(ab)2 = ccb and ccb > 300 then the value of b is
1. 1
2. 0
3. 5
4. 6

58. The remainder when 784 is divided by 342 is :
1. 0
2. 1
3. 49
4. 341

59. Ten points are marked on a straight line and eleven points are marked on another straight line. How many triangles can be constructed with vertices from among the above points?
1. 495
2. 550
3. 1045
4. 2475

60. For a scholarship, at most n candidates out of 2n + I can be selected. If the number of different ways of selection of at least one candidate is 63, the maximum number of candidates that can be selected for the scholarship is:
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5

61. The speed of a railway engine is 42 Km per hour when no compartment is attached, and the reduction in speed is directly proportional to the square root of the number of compartments attached. If the speed of the train carried by this engine is 24 Km per hour when 9 compartments are attached, the maximum number of compartments that can be carried by the engine is:
1. 49
2. 48
3. 46
4. 47

62. Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with tile number of boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700 when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600 when there are 50 boarders. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders?
1. 550
2. 560
3. 540
4. 560

63. Forty percent of the employees of a certain company are men, and 75 percent of the men more than Rs. 25,000 per year. If 45 percent of the company's employees earn more than Rs. 25,000 per year, what fraction of the women employed by the company earn Rs. 25,000 year or less'?
1. 2/11
2. 1⁄4
3. 1/3
4. 3⁄4

64. If | r - 6 | = 11 and | 2q - 12 | = 8, what is the minimum possible value of q / r?
1. -2/5
2. 2/17
3. 10/17
4. None of these

65. If n = 1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive positive integers, then which of the following is/are true?
A. n is odd
B. n is prime
C. n is a perfect square
1. A and C only
2. A and B only
3. A only
4. None of these

66. In a survey of political preference, 78% of those asked were in favor of at least one of the proposals: I, II and III. 50% of those asked favored proposal I, 30% favored proposal II, and 20% favored proposal III. If 5% of those asked favored all three of the proposals, what percentage of those asked favored more than one of the 3 proposals.
1. 10
2. 12
3. 17
4. 22

67. For two positive integers a and b define the function h(a,b) as the greatest common factor (gdf) of a, b. Let A be a set of n positive integers. G( A), the gcf of the elements of set A is computed by repeatedly using the function h. The minimum number of times h is required to be used to compute G is:
1. 1⁄2 n
2. (n - 1)
3. n
4. None of these

68. The figure below shows two concentric circles with centre 0. PQRS is a square, inscribed in the outer circle. It also circumscribes the inner circle, touching it at points B, C, D and A. What is the ratio of the perimeter of the outer circle to that of polygon ABCD?

1. / 4
2. 3 / 2
3. / 2
4. 

69. Three labeled boxes containing red and white cricket balls are all mislabeled. It is known that one of the boxes contains only white balls and one only red balls. The third contains a mixture of red and white balls. You are required to correctly label the boxes with the labels red, white and red and white by picking a sample of one ball from only one box. What is the label on the box you should sample?
1. White
2. Red
3. Red and White
4. Not possible to determine from a sample of one ball

70. If n2 = 123456787654321, what is n?
1. 12344321
2. 1235789
3. 11111111
4. 1111111

71. Abraham, Border, Charlie, Dennis and Elmer and their respective wives recently dined together and were seated at a circular table. The seats were so arranged that men and women alternated and each woman was three places distant from her husband. Mrs. Charlie sat to the left of Mr. Abraham. Mrs. Elmer sat two places to the right of Mrs. Border. Who sat to the right of Mr. Abraham?
1. Mrs. Dennis
2. Mrs. Elmer
3. Mrs. Border
4. Mrs. Border or Mrs. Dennis

72. Navjivan Express from Ahmedabad to Chennai leaves Ahmedabad at 6:30 am and travels at 50km per hour towards Baroda situated 100 kms away. At 7:00 am Howrah - Ahmedabad express leaves Baroda towards Ahmedabad and travels at 40 km per hour. At 7:30 Mr. Shah, the traffic controller at Baroda realises that both the trains are running on the same track. How much time does he have to avert a head-on collision between the two trains?
1. 15 minutes
2. 20 minutes
3. 25 minutes
4. 30 minutes

73. There is a circle of radius 1 cm. Each member of a sequence of regular polygons S1(n), n = 4,5,6,... , where n is the number of sides of the polygon, is circumscribing the circle; and each member of the sequence of regular polygons S2(n), n = 4,5,6.... where n is the number of sides of the polygon, is inscribed in the circle. Let L1(n) and L2(n) denote the perimeters of the corresponding polygons of S1(n) and S2(n).
Then {L1(13) + 2  / L2(17) is
1. greater than / 4 and less than 1
2. greater than 1 and less than 2
3. greater than 2
4. less than / 4

74. There is a square field with each side 500 metres long. It has a compound wall along its perimeter. At one of its comers, a triangular area of the field is to be cordoned off by erecting a straight line fence. The compound wall and the fence will form its borders. If the length of the fence is 100 metres, what is the maximum area in square metres that can be cordoned off?
1. 2,500
2. 10,000
3. 5,000
4. 20,000

DIRECTIONS for questions 75 to 77: These questions are based on the situation given below:
Ten coins are distributed among four people P, Q, R, S such that one of them gets one coin, another gets two coins, the third gets three coins and the fourth gets four coins. It is known that Q gets more coins than P, and S gets fewer coins than R.

75. If the number of coins distributed to Q is twice the number distributed to P then which one of the following is necessarily true?
1. R gets an even number of coins.
2. R gets an odd number of coins.
3. S gets an even number of coins.
4. S gets an odd number of coins.

76. If R gets at least two more coins than S, then which one of the following is necessarily true?
1. Q gets at least two more coins than S.
2. Q gets more coins than P.
3. P gets more coins than S.
4. P and Q together get at least five coins.

77. If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the following is not necessarily true?
1. P and Q together get at least four coins.
2. Q and S together get at least four coins.
3. R and S together get at least five coins.
4. P and R together get at least five coins.

DIRECTIONS for questions 78 to 80: These questions are based on the situation given below:
A young girl Roopa leaves home with x flowers, goes to the bank of a nearby river. On the bank of the river, there are four places of worship, standing in a row. She dips all the x flowers into the river. The number of flowers doubles. Then she enters the first place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the second place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the third place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the fourth place of worship, offers y flowers to the deity. Now she is left with no flowers in hand.

78. If Roopa leaves home with 30 flowers, the number of flowers she offers to each deity is:
1. 30
2. 31
3. 32
4. 33

79. The minimum number of flowers that could be offered to each deity is:
1. 0
2. 15
3. 16
4. Cannot be determined

80. The minimum number of flowers with which Roopa leaves home is:
1. 16
2. 15
3. 0
4. Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 81 and 82: The following table presents the sweetness of different items relative to sucrose, whose sweetness is taken to be 1.00.
Lactose 0.163
Maltose 0.32
Glucose 0.74
Sucrose 1.00
Fructose 1.70
Saccharin 675.00

81. What is the minimum amount of sucrose (to the nearest gram) that must be added to one-gram of saccharin to make a mixture that will be at least I 00 times as sweet as glucose?
1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 100

82. Approximately how many times sweeter than sucrose is a mixture consisting of glucose, sucrose and fructose in the ratio of 1: 2: 3?
1. 1.3
2. 1
3. 0.6
4. 2.3

DIRECTIONS for questions 83 and 84: These questions are based on the situation given below:
A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends from a club. There are two housewives, one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife. No lady in the group is either an architect or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F who is a lecturer. A is married to D and E is not a housewife.

83. What is E?
1. Lawyer
2. Architect
3. Lecturer
4. Accountant

84. How many members of the group are male?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 85 and 86: These questions are based on the situation given below:
Seven university cricket players are to be honored at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais along one side of a single rectangular table.
A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of the table, which is closest to the exit.
B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.
C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible.
E and F are best friends and want to sit together.

85. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?
1. C
2. D
3. G
4. F

86. Which of the following pairs may not be seated together?
1. E & A
2. B & D
3. C & F
4. G & D

DIRECTIONS for questions 87 and 88: These questions are based on the situation given below:
A rectangle PRSU, is divided into two smaller rectangles PQTU, and QRST by the line TQ. PQ=10cm, QR = 5 cm and RS = 10 cm. Points A, B, F are within rectangle PQTU, and points C, D, E are within the rectangle QRST. The closest pair of points among the pairs (A, C), (A, D), (A, E), (F, C), (F, D), (F, E), (B, C), (B, D), (B, E) are 10 * Sqrt(3) cm apart.

87. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
1. The closest pair of points among the six given points cannot be (F, C)
2. Distance between A and B is greater than that between F and C
3. The closest pair of points among the six given points is (C, D), (D, E), or (C, E)
4. None of the above

88. AB > AF > BF; CD > DE > CE; and BF = 6* Sqrt(5) cm. Which is the closest pair of points among all the six given points?
1. B, F
2. C, D
3. A, B
4. None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 89 to 92: These questions are based on the situation given below:
In each of the questions 89 to 92 a pair of graphs F(x) and F1(x) is given. These are composed of straight-line segments, shown as solid lines, in the domain x (-2, 2).
If F1(x) = - F(x) choose the answer as a;
if F1(x) = F(- x) choose the answer as b;
if F1(x) = - F(- x) choose the answer as c;
and if none of the above is true, choose the answer as d;


89.

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d



90.

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

91.

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

92.


1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

DIRECTIONS for questions 93 and 94: These questions are based on the situation given below:
There are in blue vessels with known volumes V1, V2 , ...., Vm, arranged in ascending order of volume, where v1 > 0.5 litre, and vm < 1 litre. Each of these is full of water initially. The water from each of these is emptied into a minimum number of empty white vessels, each having volume 1 litre. The water from a blue vessel is not emptied into a white vessel unless the white vessel has enough empty volume to hold all the water of the blue vessel. The number of white vessels required to empty all the blue vessels according to the above rules was n.

93. Among the four values given below, which is the least upper bound on e, where e is the total empty volume in the n white vessels at the end of the above process?
1. mvm
2. m(1 - vm)
3. mv1
4. m(1 - v1)

94. Let the number of white vessels needed be n1 for the emptying process described above, if the volume of each white vessel is 2 liters. Among the following values, which is the least upper bound on n1?
1. m/4
2. smallest integer greater than or equal to (n/2)
3. n
4. greatest integer less than or equal to (n/2)

DIRECTIONS for questions 95 to 97: These questions are based on the situation given below:
There are fifty integers a1, a2,...,a50, not all of them necessarily different. Let the greatest integer of these fifty integers be referred to as G, and the smallest integer be referred to as L. The integers a1 through a24 form sequence S1, and the rest form sequence S2. Each member of S1 is less than or equal to each member of S2.

95. All values in S1 are changed in sign, while those in S2 remain unchanged. Which of the following statements is true?
1. Every member of S1 is greater than or equal to every member of S2.
2. G is in S1
3. If all numbers originally in S1 and S2 had the same sign, then after the change of sign, the largest number of S1 and S2 is in S1.
4. None of the above

96. Elements of S1 are in ascending order, and those of S2 are in descending order. a24 and a25 are interchanged. Then, which of the following statements is true?
1. S1 continues to be in ascending order
2. S2 continues to be in descending order
3. S1 continues to be in ascending order and S2 in descending order.
4. None of the above

97. Every element of S1 is made greater than or equal to every element of S2 by adding to each element of S1 an integer x. Then x cannot be less than:
1. 210
2. The smallest value of S2
3. The largest value of S2
4. ( G-L )

DIRECTIONS for questions 98 to 100: These questions are based on the situation given below:
Let x and y be real numbers and let
f(x, y) = | x + y |, F(f(x, y)) = -f(x, y) and G(f(x, y)) = -F(f(x, y))

98. Which of the following statements is true?
1. F(f(x, y)) . G(f(x, y)) = -F(f(x, y)) . G(f(x, y))
2. F(f(x, y)) . G(f(x, y)) > -F(f(x, y)) . G(f(x, y))
3. F(f(x, y)) . G(f(x, y)) G(f(x, y)) . F(f(.x, y))
4. F(f(x,y)) + G(f(x, y)) + f(x, y) = f(-x, -y)

99. What is the value of f(G(f(1, 0)), f(F(f(1, 2)), G(f(1, 2))))?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. 0

100. Which of the following expressions yields x2 as its result?
1. F(f(x, -x)).G(f(x, -x))
2. F(f(x, x)).G(f(x, x)).4
3. -F(f(x, x).G(f(x, x)) / log2 16
4.f(x, x).f(x, x)

DIRECTIONS for questions 101 and 102: These questions are based on the situation given below:
A robot moves on a graph sheet with x and y-axes. The robot is moved by feeding it with a sequence of instructions. The different instructions that can be used in moving it, and their meanings are:
Instruction Meaning
GOTO(x,y) move to point with coordinates (x, y) no matter where you are currently
WALKX(P) Move parallel to the x-axis through a distance of p, in the positive direction if p is positive, and in the negative direction if p is negative
WALKY(P) Move parallel to the y-axis through a distance of p, in the positive direction if p is positive, and in the negative direction if p is negative.

101. The robot reaches point (6, 6) when a sequence of three instructions is executed, the first of which is a GOTO(x, y) instruction, the second is WALKX(2) and the third is WALKY(4). What are the values of x and y?
1. 2, 4
2. 0, 0
3. 4, 2
4. 2, 2

102. The robot is initially at (x, y), x > 0 and y < 0. The minimum number of instructions needed to be executed to bring it to the origin (0,0) if you are prohibited from using the GOTO instruction is: 1. 2
2. 1
3. x + y
4. 0

DIRECTIONS for questions 103 to 105: These questions are based on the situation given below:

A road network (shown in the figure below) connects cities A, B, C and D. All road segments are straight lines. D is the midpoint on the road connecting A and C. Roads AB and BC are at right angles to each other with BC shorter than AB. The segment AB is 100 km long.
Ms. X and Mr. Y leave A at 8:00 am, take different routes to city C and reach at the same time. X takes the highway from A to B to C and travels at an average speed of 61.875 km per hour. Y takes the direct route AC and travels at 45 km per hour on segment AD. Y's speed on segment DC is 55 km per hour.

103. What is the average speed of Y in km per hour?
1. 47.5
2. 49.5
3. 50
4. 52

104. The total distance traveled by Y during the journey is approximately
1. 105 km
2. 150 km
3. 130 km
4. Cannot be determined

105. What is the length of the road segment BD?
1. 50 km
2. 52.5 km
3. 55 km
4. Cannot be determined

DIRECTIONS for questions 106 and 107: These questions are based on the situation given below:

Rajiv reaches city B from city A in 4 hours, driving at the speed of 35 km per hour for the first 2 hours and at 45 km per hour for the next two hours. Aditi follows the same route, but drives at three different speeds: 30, 40 and 50 km per hour, covering an equal distance in each speed segment. The two cars are similar with petrol consumption characteristics (km per litre) shown in the figure below.


106. The amount of petrol consumed by Aditi for the journey is
1. 8.3 litres
2. 8.6 litres
3. 8.9 litres
4. 9.2 litres

107. Zoheb would like to drive Aditi's car over the same route from A to B and minimize the petrol consumption for the trip. The amount of petrol required by him is
1. 6.67 litres
2. 7 litres
3. 6.33 litres
4. 6.0 litres

DIRECTIONS for questions 108 to 110: These questions are based on the situation given below:
Recently, Ghosh Babu spent his winter vacation on Kyakya Island. During the vacation, he visited the local casino where he came across a new card game. Two players, using a normal deck of 52 playing cards, play this game. One player is called the Dealer and the other is called the Player. First, the Player picks a card at random from the deck. This is called the base card. The amount in rupees equal to the face value of the base card is called the base amount. The face values of Ace, King, Queen and Jack are ten. For other cards, the face value is the number on the card. Once, the Player picks a card from the deck, the Dealer pays him the base amount. Then the dealer picks a card from the deck and this card is called the top card. If the top card is of the same suit as the base card, the Player pays twice the base amount to the Dealer. If the top card is of the same colour as the base card (but not the same suit) then the Player pays the base amount to the Dealer. If the top card happens to be of a different colour than the base card, the Dealer pays the base amount to the Player.
Ghosh Babu played the game 4 times. First time he picked eight of clubs and the Dealer picked queen of clubs. Second time, he picked ten of hearts and the dealer picked two of spades. Next time, Ghosh Babu picked six of diamonds and the dealer picked ace of hearts. Lastly, he picked eight of spades and the dealer picked jack of spades. Answer the following questions based on these four games.

108. If Ghosh Babu stopped playing the game when his gain would be maximized, the gain in Rs. would have been
1. 12
2. 20
3. 16
4. 4

109. The initial money Ghosh Babu had (before the beginning of the game sessions) was Rs. X. At no point did he have to borrow any money. What is the minimum possible value of X?
1. 16
2. 8
3. 100
4. 24

110. If the final amount of money that Ghosh Babu had with him was Rs. 100, what was the initial amount he had with him?
1. 120
2. 8
3. 4
4. 96

End of Section II



SECTION III
Number of questions: 55

DIRECTIONS for questions 111 to 120: Each question consists of five statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
Example:

A. All cigarettes are hazardous to health.
B. Brand X is a cigarette.
C. Brand X is hazardous to health.
ABC is a valid option, where statement C can be concluded from statements A and B.

111.
A. All software companies employ knowledge workers.
B. Tara Tech employs knowledge workers.
C. Tara Tech is a software company.
D. Some software companies employ knowledge workers.
E. Tara Tech employs only knowledge workers.
1. ABC
2. ACB
3. CDB
4. ACE

112.
A. Traffic congestion increases carbon monoxide in the environment.
B. Increase in carbon monoxide is hazardous to health.
C. Traffic congestion is hazardous to health.
D. Some traffic congestion does not cause increased carbon monoxide.
E. Some traffic congestion is not hazardous to health.
1. CBA
2. BDE
3. CDE
4. BAC

113.
A. Apples are not sweets.
B. Some apples are sweet.
C. All sweets are tasty.
D. Some apples are not tasty.
E. No apple is tasty.
1. CEA
2. BDC
3. CBD
4. EAC

114.
A. Some towns in India are polluted.
B. All polluted towns should be destroyed.
C. Town Meghana should be destroyed.
D. Town Meghana is polluted.
E. Some towns in India should be destroyed.
1. BDE
2. BAE
3. ADE
4. CDB

115.
A. No patriot is a criminal.
B. Bundledas is not a criminal.
C. Bundledas is a patriot.
D. Bogusdas is not a patriot.
E. Bogusdas is a criminal.
1. ACB
2. ABC
3. ADE
4. ABE

116.
A. Ant eaters like ants.
B. Boys are ant eaters.
C. Balaram is an ant eater.
D. Balaram likes ants.
E. Balaram may eat ants.
1. DCA
2. ADC
3. ABE
4. ACD

117.
A. All actors are handsome.
B. Some actors are popular.
C. Ram is handsome.
D. Ram is a popular actor.
E. Some popular people are handsome.
1. ACD
2. ABE
3. DCA
4. EDC

118.
A. Modern industry is technology driven.
B. BTI is a modern industry.
C. BTI is technology driven.
D. BTI may be technology driven.
E. Technology driven industry is modem.
1. ABC
2. ABD
3. BCA
4. EBC

119.
A. All Golmal islanders are blue coloured people.
B. Some smart people are not blue coloured people.
C. Some babies are blue coloured.
D. Some babies are smart.
E. Some smart people are not Golmal islanders.
1. BCD
2. ABE
3. CBD
4. None of the above

120.
A. MBAs are in great demand.
B. Ram and Sita are in great demand.
C. Ram is in great demand.
D. Sita is in great demand.
E. Ram and Sita are MBAs.
1. ABE
2. ECD
3. AEB
4. EBA

DIRECTIONS for questions 121 to 124: Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A, B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

121. Either the orangutan is not angry, or he frowns upon the world.
A. The orangutan frowns upon the world.
B. The orangutan is not angry.
C. The orangutan does not frown upon the world.
D. The orangutan is angry.
1. CB only
2. DA only
3. AB only
4. CB and DA

122. Either Ravana is a demon, or he is a hero.
A. Ravana is a hero.
B. Ravana is a demon.
C. Ravana is not a demon.
D. Ravana is not a hero.
1. CD only
2. BA only
3. CD and BA
4. DB and CA

123. Whenever Rajeev uses the internet, he dreams about spiders.
A. Rajeev did not dream about spiders.
B. Rajeev used the internet.
C. Rajeev dreamt about spiders.
D. Rajeev did not use the internet.
1. AD
2. DC
3. CB
4. DA

124. If I talk to my professors, then I do not need to take a pill for headache.
A. I talked to my professors.
B. I did not need to take a pill for headache.
C. I needed to take a pill for headache.
D. I did not talk to my professors.
1. AB only
2. DC only
3. CD only
4. AB and CD

DIRECTIONS for questions 125 to 134: Each question has a set of four statements. Each statement has three segments. Choose the alternative where the third segment in the statement can be logically deduced using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.

125.
A. No cowboys laugh. Some who laugh are sphinxes. Some sphinxes are not cowboys.
B. All ghosts are fluorescent. Some ghosts do not sing. Some singers are not fluorescent.
C. Cricketers indulge in swearing. Those who swear are hanged. Some who are hanged are not cricketers.
D. Some crazy people are pianists. All crazy people are whistlers. Some whistlers are pianists.
1. A and B
2. C only
3. A and D
4. D only

126.
A. All good people are knights. All warriors are good people. All knights are warriors.
B. No footballers are ministers. All footballers are tough. Some ministers are players.
C. All pizzas are snacks. Some meals are pizzas. Some meals are snacks.
D. Some barkers are musk-deer. All barkers are sloth bears. Some sloth bears are musk-deer.
1. C and D
2. B and C
3. A only
4. C only

127.
A. Dinosaurs are pre-historic creatures. Water-buffaloes are not dinosaurs. Water-buffaloes are not pre- historic creatures.
B. All politicians are frank. No frank people are crocodiles. No crocodiles are politicians.
C. No diamond is quartz. No opal is quartz. Diamonds are opals.
D. All monkeys like bananas. Some GI Joes like bananas. Some GI Joes are monkeys.
1. C only
2. B only
3. A and D
4. B and C

128.
A. All earthquakes cause havoc. Some landslides cause havoc. Some earthquakes cause landslides.
B. All glass things are transparent. Some curios are glass things. Some curios are transparent.
C. All clay objects are brittle. All XY are clay objects. Some XY are brittle.
D. No criminal is a patriot. Ram is not a patriot. Ram is a criminal.
1. D only
2. B only
3. C and B
4. A only

129.
A. MD is an actor. Some actors are pretty. MD is pretty.
B. Some men are cops. All cops are brave. Some brave people are cops.
C. All cops are brave. Some men are cops. Some men are brave.
D. All actors are pretty; MD is not an actor; MD is not pretty.
1. D only
2. C only
3. A only
4. B and C

130.
A. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No IIMs are BIMs.
B. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No BIMs are IIMs.
C. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some IIMs are BIMs.
D. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are IIMs.
1. A and B
2. C and D
3. A only
4. B only

131.
A. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Citizens of Yes Islands are young people. Young people speak only the truth.
B. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some Yes Islands are in the Atlantic. Some citizens of Yes Islands are in the Atlantic.
C. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some young people are citizens of Yes Islands. Some young people speak only the truth.
D. Some people speak only the truth. Some citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some people who speak only the truth are citizens of Yes Islands.
1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only

132.
A. All mammals are viviparous. Some fish are viviparous. Some fish are mammals.
B. All birds are oviparous. Some fish are not oviparous. Some fish are birds.
C. No mammal is oviparous. Some creatures are oviparous and some are not. Some creatures are not mammals.
D. Some creatures are mammals. Some creatures are viviparous. Some mammals are viviparous.
1. A only
2. B only
3. C only
4. D only

133.
A. Many singers are not writers. All poets are singers. Some poets are not writers.
B. Giants climb beanstalks. Some chicken do not climb beanstalks. Some chicken are not giants.
C. All explorers live in snowdrifts. Some penguins live in snowdrifts. Some penguins are explorers.
D. Amar is taller than Akbar. Anthony is shorter than Amar. Akbar is shorter than Anthony.
1. A only
2. B only
3. B and C
4. D only

134.
A. A few farmers are rocket scientists. Some rocket scientists catch snakes. A few farmers catch snakes.
B. Poonam is a kangaroo. Some kangaroos are made of teak. Poonam is made of teak.
C. No bulls eat grass. All matadors eat grass. No matadors are bulls.
D. Some skunks drive Cadillacs. All skunks are polar bears. Some polar bears drive Cadillacs.
1. B only
2. A and C
3. C only
4. C and D

DIRECTIONS for questions 135 to 138: These questions are based on the situation given below:
The figure below presents sales and net profit, in Rs. Crores, of IVP Ltd for the five years from 199495 to 1998-99. During this period, the sales increased from Rs.100 Crores to Rs. 680 Crores. Correspondingly, the net profit increased from Rs. 2.2 Crores to Rs. 12 Crores. Net profit is defined as the excess of sales over total costs.



135. The highest percentage of growth in sales, relative to the previous year, occurred in
1. 1995-96
2. 1996-97
3. 1997-98
4. 1998-99

136. The highest percentage growth in net profit, relative to the previous year, was achieved in
1. 1998-99
2. 1997-98
3. 1996-97
4. 1995-96

137. Defining profitability as the ratio of net profit to sales, IVP Ltd. recorded the highest profitability in
1. 1998-99
2. 1997-98
3. 1994-95
4. 1996-97

138. With profitability as defined in question 137, it can be concluded that
1. Profitability is non-decreasing during the five years from 1994-95 to 1998-99.
2. Profitability is non-increasing during the five years from 1994-95 to 1998-99.
3. Profitability remained constant during the five years from 1994 - 95 to 1998 -99.
4. None of the above.

DIRECTIONS for questions 139 to 144: Consider the information provided in the figure below relating to India's foreign trade in 1997-98 and the first eight months of 1998-99. Total trade with a region is defined as the sum of exports to and imports from that region. Trade deficit is defined as the excess of imports over exports. Trade deficit may be negative.


A: U.S.A.
B: Germany
C: Other E.U.
D: U.K.
E: Japan
F: Russia
G: Other East Europe
H: OPEC
I: Asia
J: Other L.D.Cs
K: Others
Source of Imports
1997-98 Imports into India: $ 40779 million


1998-99 Imports into India(Apr-Nov.): $ 28126 million

Destination of Exports
1997-98 Exports from India: $ 33979 million






1998-99 Exports from India(Apr-Nov.): $ 21436 million


139. What is the region with which India had the highest total trade in 1997-98?
1. USA
2. Other E. U.
3. OPEC
4. Others

140. In 1997-98 the amount of Indian exports, in millions US $, to the region with which India had the lowest total trade, is approximately
1. 750
2. 340
3. 220
4. 440

141. In 1997-98, the trade deficit with respect to India, in billions of US $, for the region with the highest trade deficit with respect to India, is approximately equal to
1. 6.0
2. 3.0
3. 4.5
4. 7.5

142. What is the region with the lowest trade deficit with India in 1997-98?
1. USA
2. Asia
3. Others
4. Other E. U.

ADDITIONAL DIRECTIONS for questions 143 and 144: These questions are based on the situation give below:
Assume that the average monthly exports from India and imports to India during the remaining four months of 1998-99 would be the same as that for the first eight months of the year.

143. What is the region to which Indian exports registered the highest percentage growth between 1997-98 and 1998-99?
1. Other East Europe
2. USA
3. Asia
4. Exports have declined, no growth

144. What is the percentage growth rate in India's total trade deficit between 1997-98 and 1998-99?
1. 43
2. 47
3. 50
4. 40

DIRECTIONS for questions 145 to 148: These questions are based on the price fluctuations of four commodities - arhar, pepper, sugar and gold during February - July 1999 as described in the figures below:

145. Price change of a commodity is defined as the absolute difference in ending and beginning prices expressed as a percentage of the beginning. What is the commodity with the highest price change?
1. Arhar
2. Pepper
3. Sugar
4. Gold

146. Price volatility (PV) of a commodity is defined as follows:
PV = (highest price during the period – lowest price during the period) / average price during the period.
What is the commodity with the lowest price volatility?
1. Arhar
2. Pepper
3. Sugar
4. Gold

147. Mr. X, a funds manager with an investment company invested 25% of his funds in each of the four commodities at the beginning of the period. He sold the commodities at the end of the period. His investments in the commodities resulted in:
1. 17% profit
2. 5.5% loss
3. no profit, no loss
4. 4.3% profit

148. The price volatility of the commodity with the highest PV during the Febrauary-July period is approximately equal to:
1. 3%
2. 40%
3. 20%
4. 12%

DIRECTIONS for questions 149 to 153: These questions are based on the table below presenting data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities in selected Asian countries.
Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.

Population Covered by Drinking Water and Sanitation Facilities


Percentage Coverage

Drinking Water
Sanitation Facilities

Urban
Rural
Total
Urban
Rural
Total
India
85
79
81
70
14
29
Bangladesh
99
96
97
79
44
48
China
97
56
67
74
7
24
Pakistan
82
69
74
77
22
47
Philippines
92
80
86
88
66
77
Indonesia
79
54
62
73
40
51
Sri Lanka
88
52
57
68
62
63
Nepal
88
60
63
58
12
18
Source: World Resources 1998-99, p. 25 1, UNDP, UNEP and World Bank



149. What are the countries on the coverage frontier?
1. India and China
2. Sri Lanka and Indonesia
3. Philippines and Bangladesh
4. Nepal and Pakistan

150. Which of the following statements are true?
A. India > Pakistan and India > Indonesia
B. India > China and India > Nepal
C. Sri Lanka > China
D. China > Nepal
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. A, B and C
4. B, C and D

151. Using only the data presented under Sanitation facilities columns, it can be concluded that rural population in India, as a percentage of its total population is approximately
1. 76
2. 70
3. 73
4. Cannot be determined

152. Again, using only the data presented under Sanitation facilities columns, sequence China, Indonesia and Philippines in ascending order of rural population as a percentage of their respective total populations. The correct order is:
1. Philippines, Indonesia, China
2. Indonesia, China, Philippines
3. Indonesia, Philippines, China
4. China, Indonesia, Philippines

153. India is not on the coverage frontier because
A. it is lower than Bangladesh in terms of coverage of drinking water facilities.
B. it is lower than Sri Lanka in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.
C. it is lower than Pakistan in terms of coverage of sanitation facilities.
D. it is dominated by Indonesia.
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. D
4. None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 154 and 155: These relate to the above table with the additional proviso that the gap between the population coverages of sanitation facilities and drinking water facilities is a measure of disparity in coverage.

154. The country with the most disparity in coverage of rural sector is
1. India
2. Bangladesh
3. Nepal
4. None of these

155. The country with the least disparity in coverage of urban sector is
1. India
2. Pakistan
3. Philippines
4. None of these

DIRECTIONS for questions 156 to 165: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
Choose 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.

156. The average weight of students in a class is 50 kg. What is the number of students in the class?
A. The heaviest and the lightest members of the class weigh 60 kg and 40 kg respectively.
B. Exclusion of the heaviest and the lightest members from the class does not change the average weight of the students.

157. A small storage tank is spherical in shape. What is the storage volume of the tank?
A. The wall thickness of the tank is I cm.
B. When the empty spherical tank is immersed in a large tank filled with water, 20 litres of water overflow from the large tank.

158. Mr. X starts walking northwards along the boundary of a field, from point A on the boundary, and after walking for 150 metres reaches B, and then walks westwards, again along the boundary, for another 100 metres when he reaches C. What is the maximum distance between any pair of points on the boundary of the field?
A. The field is rectangular in shape.
B. The field is a polygon, with C as one of its vertices and A the mid point of a side.

159. A line graph on a graph sheet shows the revenue for each year from 1990 through 1998 by points and joins the successive points by straight line segments. The point for revenue of 1990 is labelled A, that for 1991 as B, and that for 1992 as C. What is the ratio of growth in revenue between 91-92 and 90-91?
A. The angle between AB and X-axis when measured with a protractor is 40 degrees, and the angle between CB and X-axis is 80 degrees.
B. The scale of Y-axis is 1 cm = 1000 Rs.

160. There is a circle with centre C at the origin and radius r cm. Two tangents are drawn from an external point D at a distance d cm from the centre. What are the angles between each tangent and the X-axis?
A. The coordinates of D are given
B. The X-axis bisects one of the tangents.

161. Find a pair of real numbers x and y that satisfy the following two equations simultaneously. It is known that the values of a, b, c, d, e and f are non-zero.
ax + by = c
dx + ey = f
A. a = kd and b = ke, c = kf, k 0
B. a = b = 1, d = e = 2, f 2c

162. Three professors A, B and C are separately given three sets of numbers to add. They were expected to find the answers to 1+1, 1+1+2, and 1+1 respectively. Their respective answers were 3, 3, and 2. How many of the professors are mathematicians?
A. A mathematician can never add two numbers correctly, but can always add three numbers correctly.
B. When a mathematician makes a mistake in a sum, the error is + I or -1.

163. How many among the four students A, B, C and D have passed the exam'?
A. The following is a true statement: A and B passed the exam.
B. The following is a false statement: At least one among C and D has passed the exam.

164. What is the distance x between two cities A and B in integral number of Kms?
A. x satisfies the equation log 2 x = Sqrt(x)
B. x less than or equal to 10 Kms

165. Mr. Mendel grew one hundred flowering plants from black seeds and white seeds, each seed giving rise to one plant. A plant gives flowers of only one colour. From a black seed comes a plant giving red or blue flowers. From a white seed comes a plant giving red or white flowers. How many black seeds were used by Mr. Mendel?
A. The number of plants with white flowers was 10.
B. The number of plants with red flowers was 70.


End Of Section III