XAT Mock Test

XAT - Mock Page 1
XAT MOCK TEST
Instructions
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.
2. This booklet contains 40 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening
the booklet, verify that all pages are printed properly.
3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with
you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators),
pagers, cellular phones, or any other device. These should be left outside the room.
4. This paper has 200 questions. The total time for the test is 120 minutes.
5. The paper is divided into three sections.
Section-I : 80 Questions
Section-II : 60 Questions
Section-III : 60 Questions
6. Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of
questions to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by
darkening the appropriate ovals.
7. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.
8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and NOT on the answer sheet or any other paper.
9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be
disqualified.
10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, "You
may leave now." The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets
and answer sheets from everyone in the room.
ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/SEEKING/RECEIVING ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING
WILL BE IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.
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Direction for questions 1 to 5: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow with reference
to it.
Retailing — no marks for guessing this is the most active and attractive sector of the last decade. While the
retailing industry itself has been present through history in our country, it is only the recent past that has
witnessed so much dynamism. It’s the latest bandwagon that has witnessed hordes of players leaping onto it.
While international retail store chains have caught the fancy of many travellers abroad, the action was missing
from the Indian business scene, at least till recently.
The emergence of retailing in India has more to do with the increasing purchasing power of buyers, especially
post-liberalisation, increase in product variety, and the increasing economies of scale, with the aid of modern
supply and distribution management solutions.
A definition of retailing is essential in order to be in a position to assess the impact of retailing and its future
potential. The current retailing revolution has been provided an impetus from multiple sources. These
‘revolutionaries’ include many conventional stores upgrading themselves to modern retailing, companies in
competitive environments entering the market directly to ensure exclusive visibility for their products and
professional chain stores coming up to meet the need of the manufacturers who do not fall into either of the
above categories. Attractiveness, accessibility and affordability seem to be the key offerings of the retailing
chain
1. What, according to the passage, has been the most attractive sector in the last decade?
a. Conventional stores b. Product variety c. Retailing d. None of these
2. Retailing was present, but lacked something according to the author. What was it?
a. Charm b. Profitability c. Entrepreneurship d. Dynamism
3. What has led to the rise of retailing in India?
a. Rising population b. Increasing volume of sales
c. Both (a) and (b) d. Increasing buying power of consumers
4. What, according to the passage, does not appear as a feature of the modern face of retailing?
a. Attractiveness b. Affordability c. Accessibility d. Alacrity
5. This article seems to be
a. taken from a newspaper. b. thought-provoking.
c. a figment of the imagination. d. part of a government white paper.
Direction for questions 6 to 15: Fill in the blanks with one of the choices provided below.
6. ____ a business is all about proper decision making.
a. Finishing b. Catching c. Running d. Laundering
Section – I
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7. Any business calls for two ____ functions.
a. critical b. rudimentary c. innate d. None of these
8. Buying and selling, they would say. However, great businesses ____ another important function.
a. comprise b. consist of c. collect d. entail
9. Establishing relationships. Can you or can you not ____ a relation with all the stakeholders, is what is
critical.
a. propagate b. motivate c. cultivate d. instigate
10. The best business managers ____ that business is 90 per cent relations and 10 per cent perspiration.
a. compound b. predict c. propound d. None of these
11. There have been many instances of great business empires that have been ____ by bad management.
a. ruined b. saved c. created d. toppled
12. Dhirubhai Ambani called his company Reliance, since Reliance stood for trust and hence the ____ of
success.
a. cornerstone b. pitfall c. preamble d. meaning
13. Trust takes a lifetime to generate and only one mistake to ____.
a. forget b. squander c. Both (a) and (b) d. vanish
14. Incidents like Enron, Arthur Anderson and WorldCom will ____ the people who have lost their money and
jobs for the rest of their lives.
a. chase b. suffer c. threaten d. haunt
15. Any business is not without a face. It only matters whether the face is ____ or intimidating.
a. intimate b. intimating c. intimation d. None of these
Direction for questions 16 to 25: In each of the following questions, one complete pair of words or phrases
and one term of another pair are given. Complete the second pair by choosing the correct term from the given
choices.
16. Carpenter : Auger :: Surgeon : ____
a. Stethoscope b. Blood c. Scalpel d. Dosage
17. Memorandum : Memoranda :: ____
a. Strata: Stratum b. Insignia : Insigne c. Alumna : Alumnus d. Bacillus : Bacilli
18. ____ : Turpitude :: Courage : Fortitude
a. Depravity b. Turbidity c. Idleness d. Idiocy
19. Implicate : Exculpate :: Complicate : ____
a. Magnify b. Mystify c. Elucidate d. Simplify
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20. Malinger : Illness :: Flatter : ____
a. Sneer b. Exaggeration c. Appreciation d. Respect
21. Thor : Thunder :: Venus : ____
a. Harvest b. Virginity c. Love d. None of these
22. Doggerel : Poet :: ____ : Novelist
a. Caricature b. Parody c. Potboiler d. Tragedy
23. Outfox : Cumming :: Outstrip : ____
a. Thought b. Speed c. Bravery d. Wrath
24. Olfactory : Nose :: ____ : Tongue
a. Guttoral b. Gustatory c. Oral d. Aural
25. Needle Eye : Thread :: Eyelet : ____
a. Binoculars b. Kaleidoscope c. Detergents d. Shoelace
Direction for questions 26 to 30: Read the passage carefully and indicate the meaning of the word underlined
by choosing one of the four alternatives as given.
Some profit by verbal obfuscation, or indeed strive to bring it about. Advertisers are not displeased if the public
thinks of vacuum cleaners as Hoovers or paper tissues as Kleenex. And demagogues frequently believe in the
premise of Newspeak, namely, that to control language is to control thought, and they dream of limiting speech
and thinking to a rude little lexicon of politically correct grunts, just enough for efficient exploitation of those
they rule. But when left to itself the evolution of word meanings is an occult, unpredictable, and unfathomable
process.
26. Obfuscation
a. Confusion b. Cancellation c. Uneasiness d. Constipation
27. Demagogue
a. Ancient b. Corpse c. Manipulator d. Traitor
28. Premise
a. Conclusion b. Inference c. Assumption d. Noteworthy
29. Lexicon
a. Meaning b. Record c. List d. None of these
30. Occult
a. Cult b. Concealed c. Conflict d. Camaraderie
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Direction for questions 31 to 40: In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to
given word.
31. Overt
a. Undercover b. Explicit c. Secretive d. Covert
32. Incorrigible
a. Reformable b. Impossible c. Irrevocable d. Inedible
33. Transparent
a. Clear b. Opaque c. Large d. Open
34. Quotidian
a. Serious b. Expensive c. Unusual d. Neutral
35. Gawky
a. Fragrant b. Melodious c. Dexterous d. Interesting
36. Comely
a. Becoming b. Ugly c. Pretty d. Attractive
37. Infirm
a. Weak b. Deft c. Potent d. Strong
38. Errant
a. Vagabond b. Settled c. Upright d. Arrant
39. Nurture
a. Flourish b. Nervous c. Heavenly d. Destroy
40. Kindle
a. Inspire b. Desire c. Extinguish d. Distinguish
Direction for questions 41 to 50: Read the following passage carefully and indicate the meaning of the words
or phrases underlined by choosing the correct alternative.
The Karnataka government must be gratified that forest brigand Veerappan did not dictate who should be the
state chief minister. Instead, he merely wanted jailed ‘LTTE sympathiser’ Kolathur T. S. Mani to be freed and
made the emissary for securing the release of kidnapped former minister H. Nagappa, the bandit’s hostage for
over three months. Since Veerappan had threatened to behead Mr Nagappa if Mani was not released before
November 30, the government of S. M. Krishna readily capitulated.
Hardly surprising then that the government did not oppose the bail application of Mani, the charges against
whom include supplying arms, ammunition, explosives and other material to Veerappan. With the Krishna
government only too willing to utilise his services as a negotiator, little credence can be given to law and
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parliamentary affairs minister D. B. Chandre Gowda’s assertion that the state had no intention of withdrawing
the cases against Mani. Having secured conditional bail from one court, Mani, who was nabbed by the Special
Task Force last March, is brimming with confidence. He has demanded dropping of the cases against him in
exchange for functioning as an emissary.
Even as Karnataka prepares to revoke the charges against Mani, the Tamil Nadu government has said that he
will be arrested the moment he steps into the state where he is wanted in five cases, including one relating to
the kidnapping of matinee idol Rajkumar. However, the fact that Chennai is helpless should Bangalore send him
as an emissary clearly shows that terrorists and criminals, far from being on the run, are being courted by
governments.
This is not to suggest that Kolathur Mani should be condemned without a fair trial but to underscore that the
Karnataka government, which framed the charges against him, now finds it expedient to drop the cases,
making both actions highly suspect. In 2000, the Krishna government’s decision to release Veerappan’s
associates detained under TADA in exchange for Rajkumar’s release was halted by the Supreme Court.
In its criticism of the hostage-for-detenus deal, the apex court asked the Krishna administration to quit if it
could not govern. If the import of the court’s observations made at that time can be disregarded with impunity
now, obviously the administration’s fear of Veerappan is greater than its respect for the judiciary.
41. Gratified
a. Great b. Thankless c. Content d. Joyous
42. Sympathiser
a. Traitor b. Ally c. Relative d. None of these
43. Credence
a. Acceptance b. Rigidity c. Rebuttal d. Trustworthiness
44. Brimming
a. Scarcity b. Stolid c. Fond d. Awash
45. Emissary
a. Ambassador b. Spy c. Tourist d. Visitor
46. Revoke
a. Provoke b. Invoke c. Repeal d. Retard
47. Matinee
a. Moribund b. Hostile c. Unperturbed d. None of these
48. Condemned
a. Blessed b. Gorgeous c. Convicted d. None of these
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49. Expedient
a. Quick b. Practical c. Difficult d. Unbecoming
50. Impunity
a. Delightful b. Exemption c. Alacrity d. Disgusting
Direction for questions 51 to 55: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow
with reference to it.
South Africa is a country blessed with an abundance of natural resources including fertile farmlands and unique
mineral resources. South African mines are world leaders in the production of diamonds and gold as well as
strategic metals such as platinum. The climate is mild, reportedly resembling the San Francisco bay area
weather more than anywhere in the world.
South Africa was colonised by the English and Dutch in the 17th century. English domination of the Dutch
descendants (known as Boers or Afrikaners) resulted in the Dutch establishing the new colonies of Orange
Free State and Transvaal. The discovery of diamonds in these lands around 1900 resulted in an English
invasion, which sparked the Boer War. Following independence from England, an uneasy power sharing between
the two groups held sway until the 1940s, when the Afrikaner National Party was able to gain a strong majority.
Strategists in the National Party invented apartheid as a means to cement their control over the economic and
social system. Initially, aim of the apartheid was to maintain white domination while extending racial separation.
Starting in the 1960s, a plan of ‘Grand Apartheid’ was executed, emphasising territorial separation and police
repression.
With the enactment of apartheid laws in 1948, racial discrimination was institutionalised. Race laws touched
every aspect of social life, including a prohibition of marriage between non-whites and whites, and the sanctioning
of ‘white-only’ jobs. In 1950, the Population Registration Act required that all South Africans be racially classified
into one of three categories: white, black (African), or coloured (of mixed descent). The coloured category
included major subgroups of Indians and Asians. Classification into these categories was based on appearance,
social acceptance, and descent. For example, a white person was defined as ‘in appearance obviously a white
person or generally accepted as a white person’. A person could not be considered white if one of his or her
parents were non-white. The determination that a person was ‘obviously white’ would take into account ‘his
habits, education, and speech and deportment and demeanour’. A black person would be of or accepted as a
member of an African tribe or race, and a coloured person is one that is not black or white. The department of
home affairs (a government bureau) was responsible for the classification of the citizenry. Non-compliance with
the race laws was dealt with harshly. All blacks were required to carry ‘pass books’ containing fingerprints,
photos and information on access to non-black areas.
In 1951, the Bantu Authorities Act established a basis for ethnic government in African reserves, known as
‘homelands’. These homelands were independent states to which each African was assigned by the government
according to the record of origin (which was frequently inaccurate). All political rights, including voting, held by
an African were restricted to the designated homeland. The idea was that they would be citizens of the homeland,
losing their citizenship in South Africa and any right of involvement with the South African Parliament, which
held complete hegemony over the homelands. From 1976 to 1981, four of these homelands were created,
denationalising nine million South Africans. The homeland administrations refused the nominal independence,
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maintaining pressure for political rights within the country as a whole. Nevertheless, Africans living in the
homelands needed passports to enter South Africa: aliens in their own country.
In 1953, the Public Safety Act and the Criminal Law Amendment Act were passed, which empowered the
government to declare stringent states of emergency and increased penalties for protesting against or supporting
the repeal of a law. The penalties included fines, imprisonment and whippings. In 1960, a large group of blacks
in Sharpeville refused to carry their passes; the government declared a state of emergency. The emergency
lasted for 156 days, leaving 69 people dead and 187 people wounded. Wielding the Public Safety Act and the
Criminal Law Amendment Act, the white regime had no intention of changing the unjust laws of apartheid.
The penalties imposed on political protest, even non-violent protest, were severe. During the states of emergency
that continued intermittently until 1989, anyone could be detained without a hearing by a low-level police official
for up to six months. Thousands of individuals died in custody, frequently after gruesome acts of torture. Those
who were tried were sentenced to death, banished, or imprisoned for life, like Nelson Mandela.
51. This passage seems to be a
a. a page from a book of history. b. a newspaper article.
c. an excerpt from a political treatise. d. None of these
52. What according to the passage led to the Boer War?
a. Discovery of diamonds b. Colonization
c. English invasion d. None of these
53. Which party has been accused of introducing apartheid in South Africa?
a. African National Congress b. Afrikaner National Party
c. The Boer Militia d. Cannot be determined
54. When according to the passage, was apartheid institutionalized?
a. 1948 b. 1947 c. 1949 d. 1950
55. The Bantu Authorities Act led to the creation of
a. native homelands. b. dictatorship.
c. ethnic governments in homelands d. None of these
Direction for questions 56 to 65: Fill in the blanks with one of the choices provided below.
56. ____ had I put my key in the lock than the watchdog sprang at me.
a. Hardly b. Barely c. Scarcely d. No sooner
57. Not since 1942 had Orissa ____ a cyclone of this magnitude.
a. demonstrated b. witnessed c. made d. undergone
58. The cyclone, with wind speeds of around 200 kilometres per hour had uprooted trees, ____ electric
poles, brought down houses and blown away tinned roofs.
a. removed b. uprooted c. thrown d. twisted
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59. “It has been an ____ disaster,” said chief minister Gamang after visiting the worst-hit areas.
a. unfair b. unforgivable c. unmitigated d. unchallenged
60. According to the ____ department officials in the state, the cyclone was not altogether unexpected
during this part of the year.
a. forestry b. forensic c. forecasting d. meteorological
61. On October 18, a devastating cyclone ____ through one of the state’s largest cities, Behrampur in
Ganjam district, and adjoining districts leaving a trail of destruction.
a. ran b. howled c. ripped d. moved
62. But by the time the cyclone had passed through, it had already shown how ____ inadequate the
disaster prediction in the country actually is.
a. Short-sightedly b. pitifully c. scarcely d. awesomely
63. The storm began as a ____ on the meteorology radar screens.
a. warning b. indicator c. cloud d. depression
64. The post-monsoon season routinely ____ such storms at least twice a month.
a. brings b. testifies c. forecasts d. witnesses
65. It was only later that the ____ experts finally realised that it was going to be a severe cyclonic storm.
a. political b. country’s c. international d. weather
Direction for questions 66 to 75: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Performance appraisal has been one of the most debated management practices for several decades. It has
generated a wide variety of viewpoints. Here I will concentrate, due to paucity of time and space, on appraisal
objectives and its linkages with pay and rewards.
Typically, performance appraisal schemes serve multiple objectives. It is centrally linked to the motivation of
employees. It provides some of the essential components of effective motivational strategies; in particular,
feedback that permits an employee to learn how well he or she is performing; goal or objective-setting that
specifies what the person should be doing; team building that allows the employee to participate along with
peers and his superiors in solving problems that impede his productivity; and monetary incentives that reward
good performance.
Performance appraisal leads to the identification of the training and development needs of the employees. It
also has close links with other important areas of human resource management, in particular with selection,
motivation, goal-congruency and succession planning. Performance data provides relevant information required
for validating selection methods, in assessing whether selection methods are bringing high performers into the
organisation.
Here the organisation must not get trapped into the various pitfalls that come along with administration of
appraisal system. The question that arises here is how to avoid these pitfalls? A necessary condition for the
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effective management of performance appraisal system in any organisation is the need to clarify and communicate
to all concerned the objectives that the system intends to achieve. Everyone in the organisation especially the
key decision makers should be fully aware of precisely what objectives the system of performance appraisal is
expected to achieve, and the priorities within these objectives.
66. What, according to the passage, should be done to make the performance appraisal successful?
a. Clearly communicate the objectives of the appraisal process.
b. Link the appraisal process with remuneration.
c. Use the appraisal simply as a measure of goal congruency.
d. None of these
67. What, according to the passage, should the key decision-makers be aware of?
a. The level of motivation of the employees.
b. The objectives the appraisal system is expected to achieve.
c. Training and development needs of the employees.
d. None of these
68. According to the passage, performance appraisal helps to
a. motivate employees. b. determine goal congruency.
c. plan succession. d. All of these
69. What does ‘paucity’, as used in the context of this passage mean?
a. Availability b. Opportunity c. Scarcity d. None of these
70. There has been a debate on
a. performance appraisal’s moral validity.
b. cost-benefit analysis of the appraisal process.
c. correlation between appraisal and remuneration.
d. Cannot say
71. According to the author, performance appraisal helps the appraised to
a. set goals. b. improve as a team player.
c. monitor problems that impede productivity. d. All of the above
72. According to the passage,
a. appraisal data can provide inputs to validate selection procedures.
b. identify non-conformities in business processes.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
73. Performance appraisal, according to the passage
a. helps to identify training needs of employees.
b. helps to design training and development programmes.
c. helps to identify candidates for specific training programmes.
d. helps to validate the efficiency of training programmes.
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74. This article seems to have been taken from
a. a student’s research paper.
b. a newspaper report.
c. a business magazine.
d. None of the above
75. What, according to the passage, is performance appraisal a part of?
a. Personnel management
b. Human resource management
c. Strategic human resource management
d. Cannot say
Directions for questions 76 to 80: Select the choice that comes closest to the opposite in meaning to the
word given in the question.
76. Enhance
a. Abate b. Ruin c. Repeat d. Philanthropic
77. Catalyst
a. Defeatist b. Droop c. Brake d. Pessimistic
78. Witless
a. Certain b. Clear c. Brilliant d. Definite
79. Dexterous
a. Suave b. Desperate c. Awkward d. Eclectic
80. Wary
a. Imbalanced b. Ventricle c. Insane d. Trusting
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Section – II
Direction for questions 81 to 85: Find out what comes next in the series.
81. 0, 11, 26, 45, ___.
a. 55 b. 65 c. 68 d. 54
82. 1, 1,
4
3
,
2
1
, 16
5
, ___.
a. 16
7
b. 32
3
c. 16
3
d. None of these
83. 5, 9, 15, 19, ___.
a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. None of these
84. 80, 75, 65, 50, ___.
a. 30 b. 70 c. 45 d. None of these
85. 4, 9, 20, 43, 90, ___.
a. 178 b. 180 c. 182 d. 185
Directon for questions 86 to 90: The following questions are related to the construction of words from an
alphabet set comprising of three letters: A, B and C. The words are formed by applying one or more of the
syntactical rules.
I. Rule 1 : If a word ends with letter A, then a new word can be made by adding B at the end.
II. Rule 2 : If ‘x’ is any sequence of letters and Cx is a word, then so is Cxx.
III. Rule 3 : If AAA occurs in any word, then we may drop it and replace it by B.
IV. Rule 4 : If BB occurs in any word, then we may drop it.
It is also given that CA is also a word. Given is an illustration of one of the ways of constructing the words
CBABBAB from CA in six steps.
i. CA (given)
ii. CAA (rule 2)
iii. CAAAA (rule 2)
iv. CBA (rule 3)
v. CBAB (rule 1)
vi. CBABBAB (rule 2)
Note: A step is defined as an addition of one ‘x’ or replacement of one set of AAA by one B.
86. The minimum number of steps required to construct CBBAA is
a. 4 b. 6 c. 5 d. 3
87. The minimum number of steps required to construct BB from CA is
a. 4 b. 3 c. 8 d. Cannot be constructed
88. The minimum number of steps required to construct CBBBA is
a. 11 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12
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89. The number of words in the collection {CBB, CAB, CBA, CAA, BC} that can be constructed from CA is
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
90. If CB is also a valid word, then the number of constructible words in the collection in question 89 is
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
91. In a meeting there are five participants, A, B, C, D and E, out of which three are gents and two are ladies.
How many ways can they sit such that there is at least one lady to the side of each gentleman.
a. 12 b. 36 c. 24 d. 48
Direction for questions 92 to 97: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Function A(x, y) is defined only for non-negative integers.
A(x, y) = y + 1 if x = 0
= A(x – 1, y) if x ¹ 0 but y = 0
= A(x – 1, A(x, y –1)) if x ¹ 0 and y ¹ 0
92. A(1, 3) = ?
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these
93. A(2, 0) = ?
a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. None of these
94. A(1, 2) = ?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. None of these
95. A( 0, A(1, 1)) is the same as
a. A(1, 1) b. A(0, A(1, 0)) c. A(1, 2) d. None of these
96. A(0, A(1, 0)) is same as
a. A(1, 1) b. A(0, A(1, 1)) c. A(1, 2) d. None of these
97. If A(1, y) = 5, then the value of y is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 0 d. None of these
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Direction for questions 98 to 107: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A large scale workshop has workers in four grades: W1, W2, W3 and W4, woking in various departments. The
table below gives information about three departements: processing, assembly and fabrication. Some workers
from processing and fabrication department also work in assembly department. In the assembly department,
ratio of workers from (processing department) to (exclusively assembly department) to (fabrication department)
is 1 : 2 : 1. This ratio is same for all grades and all skill levels.
54
Department
60 45 145
62 64 64 174
44 44 121
28 32 22 72
24 32 100
31
W1
Grade
W4
W3
W2
36 27 90
Skilled
Unskilled
22 16 14 50
15 12 10 36
Processing Assembly Fabrication Total
98. How many skilled workers work in a department other than the three given?
a. 49 b. 50 c. 52 d. 55
99. How many unskilled workers are there exclusively in the assembly department?
a. 46 b. 42 c. 44 d. 45
100. If 28 more skilled workers are added to W4 grade in assembly department, by how much per cent will
the skilled workers in processing depatment in grade W4 increase? [The same ratios are valid.]
a. 17% b. 19% c. 20% d. 25%
101. In the above case, how many skilled workers from fabrication department in W4 grade will also be
working in assembly department?
a. 15 b. 12 c. 13 d. 11
102. What is the ratio of the total number of workers of W4 grade working only in processing departement to
the number of skilled workers of W2 grade working exclusively in assembly department?
a. 2 : 1 b. 2 : 3 c. 1 : 2 d. 1 : 1
103. By how much per cent do the number of skilled workers from W1 grade working in both processing and
assembly departement exceed the corresponding numbers of the unskilled workers from W4 grade?
a. 500% b. 20% c. 400% d. 25%
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104. What is the total number of workers working exclusively in assembly department?
a. 140 b. 288 c. 200 d.144
105. How many unskilled workers from W2 and W3 grades work only in processing and fabrication departments?
a. 160 b. 288 c. 68 d. 94
106. Approximately what per cent of total employees are those of W1 grade working in fabrication department?
a. 12% b. 8% c. 10% d. 11%
107. Which among the following constitutes the highest number of workers?
a. Skilled workers of W3 grade working only in processing department
b. Skilled workers of W2 grade working only in fabricaiton department
c. Skilled workers of W2 grade working only in processing department
d. Skilled workers of W1 grade working only in assembly department
108. Which of the following divides 1442 + 1692 + 144 × 169?
a. 157 b. 144 c. 313 d. None of these
109. If ax = by = cz ,
b c
a b
= and a, b and c are not equal, then what is the value of
x z
2z
+
?
a.
x
y
b. y
x
c.
z
x
d.
x
z
Direction for questions 110 to 114: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A function f(a, b) is defined for all integers a and b with a > b ³ 0 as follows.
f(a, b) = a, if b = 0.
f(a, b) = f(b, r) if b > r, where r is the remainder when a is divided by b.
110. The value of f(27, 18) is
a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. None of these
111. f(6, 4) equals to
a. f(54, 52) b. f(56, 52) c. f(52, 48) d. None of these
112. The value of f(15, 9) is
a. 5 b. 9 c. 1 d. None of these
113. f(44, 15) equals
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of these
114. f(9, 3) equals
a. f(54, 50) b. f(54, 51) c. f(54, 48) d. None of these
Page 16 XAT - Mock
Direction for questions 115 to 118: Answer the questions based on the following information.
There are three projects and at least one project is to be selected and the following specified certain conditions
are given for the selection of these projects.
Condition I: Projects 1 and 2 must be selected.
Condition II: Project 1 or 3 must be selected but both cannot be selected.
Condition III: Project 2 can be selected only if project 3 is selected.
115. Ignoring the conditions I, II and III, how many different ways of selecting projects are there?
a. 6 b. 7 c. 4 d. 8
116. The number of selection combinations which satisfy at most one of the three conditions is
a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
117. The number of selection combinations which satisfy at least two conditions is
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 2
118. The number of selection combinations which satisfy condition 3 is
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6
Direction for questions 119 to 125: Given below are some series of numbers or letters. One member of the
series is missing form the list marked as ‘?’. From the alternatives given for each question, select the correct
one.
119. 1W 2V 3U 5T ? 13R
a. 11Q b. 8X c. 9S d. 8S
120. HV GT FR EP DN ?
a. EM b. CW c. CL d. CM
121. I M Q ?
a. T b. W c. Z d. U
122. 258 130 66 ? 18 10
a. 34 b. 32 c. 36 d. 40
123. D F I M R ?
a. S b. X c. Y d. V
124. 2 3 4 6 8 ? 16 24
a. 14 b. 11 c. 13 d. 12
125. 2 4 8 14 22 ?
a. 28 b. 34 c. 32 d. 38
XAT - Mock Page 17
Direction for questions 126 to 130: Following questions consist of a number of assertions. Each sentence is
an assertion. Some of these assertions may be inconsistent with each other. From these you can form groups
of assertions that are consistent with each other. You have to find the largest number of consistent assertions
in each case.
126. Bricks can be used as pillows. Only soft pillows put insomniacs to sleep. Ashok is not an insomniac.
Bricks are not soft. Ashok sleeps using bricks as pillows. Only insomniacs take sleeping pills. Ashok
takes sleeping pills.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 4 d. None of these
127. All poets are creatures of fantasy. Ram cannot create fantasy. Those who create fantasy are creatures
of fantasy. Those who are creatures of fantasy can create fantasy. Ram is a poet. Ram is a creature of
fantasy.
a. 4 b. 3 c. 5 d. None of these
128. Geeta is a housewife. No housewife can be an office worker. All housewives are cooks. Only good cooks
can cook fried rice. Geeta works in office. Geeta can cook fried rice. Geeta is not a very good cook.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. None of these
129. You can fool some people all the time but not all. Some people cannot be fooled all the time. Most of the
people can be fooled all the time. All the people can be fooled some time. Some people cannot be fooled
anytime.
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. None of these
130. All successful managers are dishonest. All dishonest managers are successful. X is a successful
manager if and only if Y is a successful manager. X is an unsuccessful manager and he is a dishonest
manager. X is a successful manager and Y is an unsuccessful manager. Y is an honest manager.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. None of these.
Direction for questions 131 to 136: Answer the questions based on the following experiment.
Five different balls (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) are distributed into four different urns (I, II, III, and IV). Each urn may not
receive any ball, may receive exactly one ball, or more than one ball.
131. The number of ways urn II receives exactly two balls is
a. 135 b. 27 c. 270 d. None of these
132. The number of ways in which ball 1 goes to urn I is
a. 256 b. 64 c. 320 d. None of these
133. The total number of ways in which the balls can be distributed in the urns is
a. 625 b. 1,024 c. 120 d. None of these
134. The number of ways in which the balls can be distributed in the urns, such that no urn is empty, is
a. 120 b. 240 c. 119 d. None of these
Page 18 XAT - Mock
135. The number of ways in which the balls can be distributed such that all the balls go into one urn is
a. 4 b. 24 c. 120 d. None of these
136. In the above set of questions, if the number of balls is changed from five to three and the number of urns
is changed from four to three, then in how many ways can the balls be distributed such that only one urn
is empty?
a. 18 b. 9 c. 24 d. None of these
137. Complete the following series.
1, 1, 4, 12, 27, 51, ___.
a. 59 b. 86 c. 107 d. 114
138. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest six-digit numbers formed using the digits
0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5?
a. 440865 b. 419760 c. 502343 d. None of these
Direction for questions 139 and 140: Answer the questions based on the following data.
A survey was conducted by India Today to know how our Memebrs of Parliament (MPs) are conscious of the
population scenario of the country. The data below summarizes the number of children of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha members, across different zones of the country.
7
1 2 3 >3
4
12 32 41 96
18 23 18 21 85
43 12 8 96
18 42 16 14 113
3 43 44 62 154
8 12 13 49
11
North
Central
West
Zone
Number of children
South
East
16 1 4 33
Lok
Sabha
members
Rajya
Sabha
members
21 23 5 3 59
6 17 7 7 42
2 21 26 18 68
Total no . of members
139. What per cent of the Rajya Sabha members do not have children at all?
a. 8.75% b. 11.24% c. 11.63% d. 10.35%
140. What is the average number of children of the Lok Sabha members from the south zone?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. Cannot be determined
XAT - Mock Page 19
141. Which of the following Shakespearean plays is parodied in a scene in the Arnold Schwarzenegger flop
Last Action Hero?
a. Romeo and Juliet b. Twelfth Night c. Hamlet d. As You Like It
142. Which of the following element is lightest and has the atomic number 1?
a. Neon b. Helium c. Oxygen d. Hydrogen
143. The ‘patella bone’ is better known as
a. The jaw bone b. The knee cap c. The ear lobe d. The mid nose bone
144. Walker Cup is associated with which of the following sports disciplines?
a. Golf b. Tennis c. Football d. Squash
145. Who wrote the novel Jurassic Park on which the famous Steven Spielberg film was based?
a. Arthur C.Clarke b. John Grisham c. Michael Crichton d. George Hans
146. Who directed the movies Jaws and Schindler’s List ?
a. Steven Spielberg b. M. Knight Shyamalan c. Henry Ogilvy d. Hauz Kahkar
147. Anand dairy farm is in which state of India?
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Rajasthan d. Orissa
148. Which of the following personality’s song features in Jagjit Singh’s album, Samvedna?
a. Murli Manohar Joshi b. V. P. Singh c. Indira Nooyi d. Atal Behari Vajpayee
149. Justice K.G.Shah Commission of Inquiry was set up for
a. the probe of Godhara carnage in Gujarat. b. the probe of 1999 Mumbai blasts
c. resolving the BODO problem d. resolving the POTO implementation problem
150. Which of the following personalites was addressing the meeting in Jalianwala Bagh on April 13,1919?
a. Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Lala Lajpat Rai d. None of these
151. Which of the following rulers suffered defeat in the famous Battle of Haldighati?
a. Akbar b. Aurangzeb c. Rana Pratap d. Ibrahim Lodi
152. ‘Allen Solly’, is a brand owned by which of the following group of companies?
a. Madura Coats b. Arvind Mills c. Mafatlal d. Raymonds
153. The controversial MIP-95 Mutual Fund scheme belongs to
a. UTI b. ICICI Prudential Life c. Om Kotak Mahindra d. HDFC Standard Life
154. Which of the following personalities would you associate with Arzoo.com?
a. Rahul Bajaj b. Sabeer Bhatia
c. N.R. Narayana Murthy d. Arun Kumar
155. ‘World Ozone Day’, is celebrated on which of the following days every year?
a. October 7 b. September 16 c. November 15 d. December 5
Section – III
Page 20 XAT - Mock
156. In Einstein’s famous equation E = mc2, if ‘E’ stands for energy and ‘m’ for mass, then what does ‘c’
stand for?
a. Instensity of light b. Speed of light c. Einstein’s constant d. Planck’s constant
157. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
a. Liver b. Spleen c. Lungs d. Bile
158. This gentleman is associated with the propagation of the ‘Theory of heredity’ for the first time. We are
talking about
a. Gregor J. Mendel b. John Schotky c. Hargobind Khorana d. B. Srinivasan
159. What was the code name given for the joint Indian armed force’s, operations which evicted the Pakistanis
and their surrogates from Kargil in 1999 ?
a. Operation Vijay b. Operation Black Hill c. Operation PAKDEF d. Operation Victory
160. ‘Camry’ is the latest brand of car model from which of the following auto giant’s stable?
a. General Motors b.Toyota Motors c.Maruti Suzuki Ltd. d. Hyundai
161. ‘Be the first to know’, assures which of the following satellite channels?
a. CNN b. BBC World c. Fox News d. Star News
162. The muscial ‘West Side Story’ is based on which of the following Shakespearean plays?
a. As You Like It b. Romeo and Juliet c. Julius Caesar d. The Twelfth Night
163. What is the nickname of New York city?
a. Big Ben b. Big Apple c. City of Dreams d. Dominique’s City
164. A closed economy is one which
a. does not trade with the other countries
b. does not possess any means of international transport
c. does not have a coastal line
d. is not a member of the United Nations
165. The traditional economy is characterised by
a. division of labour and specialisation b. organisation of production for self consumption
c. capital intensive process of production d. increasing state intervention
166. Who is the present chief executive officer of General Electric (GE)?
a. Jack Welch b. Waren Buffett c. Jeffery Immelt d. Samuel J. Palmisano
167. Who is the chief executive officer of Microsoft?
a. Bill Gates b. Steve Ballmer c. Steve Wozniak d. Henry Kruger
168. Who is the chief executive officer of IBM?
a. Samuel J. Palmisano b. Phillip Bullock
c. Henry Kissinger d. Scott Mcneally
169. Which of the following company has the punchline ‘We bring good things to life’?
a. Intel b. BPL c. Philips d. General Electric
170. 3001: The Final Odyssey’ has been authored by which of the following personalities?
a. Arthur C. Clarke b. William Golding c. Issac Asimov d. Alvin Toffler
XAT - Mock Page 21
171. Which of the following is the capital city of Morocco?
a. Rabat b. Baku c. Bishkek d. Amman
172. Which river flows through the Grand Canyon in the USA?
a. Thames b. Thebes c. Colorado d. Mississippi
173. Which of the following towns was the birthplace of William Shakespeare?
a. Stratford-upon-Avon b. NewYork c. Thames City d. Viverendi City
174. The only state in India which has more female population than male population is
a. Orissa b. Kerala c. Maharashtra d. Nagaland
175. Which of the following missiles was test fired successfully on January 26, 2002?
a. AGNI - I b. AGNI - II c. AGNI - III d. AGNI - IV
176. Which of the following books is a good source of information on the history of Kashmir?
a. Kalhana’s Rajatarangini b. Kamban’s Raslila
c. Udayan’s Maitri d. Megasthenes’s India
177. India’s first electric car is known as
a. Reva b. Mewa c. Bewa d. Mova
178. The latest model of Barbie doll launched recently by Mattel Toys is
a. The President Barbie b. Spice Barbie
c. Dolly Barbie d. Rose Barbie
179. What is BPL according to Indian finance minister Yashwant Sinha?
a. Below Peer Location b. Bent to Pull Lead c. Below Poverty Line d. Below Poor Line
180. A professor of electrical engineering and computer sciences at MIT, his products have been used in
cars, space shuttles, ships and theatres. Who are we talking about?
a. Ajit Kelkar b. Amar Bose c. Arun Netravali d. Ajit S. Galgotia
181. Which of the following elements, after oxygen, is most abundant on earth’s crust?
a. Copper b. Silicon c. Aluminium d. Silver
182. Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for which of his following works?
a. Discovery of X-rays b. Diffraction of light
c. Photoelectric effect d. Effect of light on the mass of a body
183. Who created Spiderman?
a. Stan Lee b. Roger Moore
c. Lee Falk d. Hector Remi Herge
184. Which was the only thing that remained in the Pandora’s Box after it was opened?
a. Love b. Life c. Hope d. Water
185. Beijing recently won the bid to host the 2008 Olympics. Which city achieved the second spot?
a. Chicago b. Toronto c. New Delhi d. New York
186. Which are the three destinations in Orissa known as part of the popular Golden Triangle?
a. Puri, Cuttack, Rourkela b. Puri, Konark and Bhubaneshwar
c. Cuttack, Bhubaneshwar, Puri d. Konark, Digha, Balasore
Page 22 XAT - Mock
187. ‘Gold Riband’, the brand owned by McDowell’s is a type of
a. Whisky b. Beer c. Rum d. None of these
188. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a modern economy?
a. Predominance of agriculture b. Self-sufficient village economy
c. Diversity in production of commodities d. Static technology
189. Who is the disinvestment minister of India?
a. Arun Shourie b. George Fernandes
c. Ram Jethmalani d. Ghulam Nabi Azad
190. The newly appointed chairman of State Bank of India (SBI) is
a. Janaki Ballabha b. K. V. Kamath c. P. P. Vora d. A. K. Purwar
191. Who is the author of the famous novel Family Matters?
a. Arundhati Roy b. Anita Desai c. Rohniton Mistry d. Salman Rushdie
192. Who is the present president of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
a. A.V. Birla b. Ashok Soota c. Sanjiv Goenka d. R.S. Lodha
193. ‘It takes the rough with the smooth’ is used by which of the following car models?
a. TATA Sumo b. TATA Sierra c. TATA Indica d. Toyota Qualis
194. Justine Pasek was in the news for winning the Miss Universe title 2002 from Oxana Fedorora. She hails
from
a. Greece b. Panama c. Venezuela d. South Africa
195. Which of the following represents the number of member countries in WTO as on January 1, 2002?
a. 141 b. 142 c. 143 d. 144
196. Who was the first Indian film star who advertised for Lux soap ?
a. Persis Khambata b. Lila Chitnis c. Nargis d. Madhubala
197. The new chairman of NASSCOM is
a. Phiroz Vandrevala b. Pradeep Guha. c. Arun Netravalli d. Arun Kumar
198. ‘Cannon’ is a term associated with which of the following sports disciplines?
a. Carom b. Billiards c. Snooker d. Golf
199. Lifebuoy soap is brand of which of the following companies?
a. Godrej b. P&G c. HLL d. None of these
200. Light year is a unit of
a. distance b. time c. speed d. velocity
XAT - Mock Page 23
XAT - Mock
Answers & Explanations
Scoring table
Total questions Total attempted Total correct Total wrong Score Time taken
200
1 c 2 d 3 d 4 d 5 a 6 c 7 a 8 d 9 c 10 c
11 a 12 a 13 b 14 d 15 a 16 c 17 d 18 a 19 d 20 c
21 c 22 c 23 b 24 b 25 d 26 a 27 c 28 c 29 d 30 b
31 d 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 c 36 b 37 d 38 b 39 d 40 c
41 c 42 b 43 a 44 d 45 a 46 c 47 d 48 c 49 b 50 b
51 c 52 c 53 b 54 a 55 c 56 d 57 b 58 d 59 c 60 d
61 c 62 b 63 d 64 a 65 d 66 a 67 b 68 d 69 c 70 d
71 d 72 a 73 a 74 c 75 b 76 a 77 c 78 c 79 c 80 d
81 c 82 c 83 c 84 a 85 d 86 b 87 d 88 a 89 c 90 b
91 b 92 b 93 d 94 a 95 c 96 a 97 d 98 a 99 c 100 d
101 a 102 d 103 c 104 d 105 c 106 c 107 b 108 a 109 a 110 b
111 a 112 d 113 d 114 b 115 b 116 b 117 c 118 c 119 d 120 c
121 d 122 a 123 b 124 d 125 c 126 d 127 a 128 d 129 c 130 d
131 c 132 a 133 b 134 b 135 a 136 a 137 b 138 a 139 d 140 d
141 b 142 d 143 b 144 a 145 c 146 a 147 a 148 d 149 a 150 d
151 c 152 a 153 a 154 b 155 b 156 b 157 a 158 a 159 a 160 b
161 a 162 b 163 b 164 a 165 a 166 c 167 b 168 a 169 d 170 a
171 a 172 c 173 a 174 b 175 a 176 a 177 a 178 a 179 c 180 b
181 b 182 c 183 a 184 c 185 b 186 b 187 a 188 c 189 a 190 d
191 c 192 b 193 b 194 b 195 d 196 b 197 d 198 b 199 c 200 a
Page 24 XAT - Mock
1. Refer to the 1st line.
2. Refer to the 2nd sentence.
3. Refer to the paragraph 2.
4. Refer to the last line.
5. A newspaper feature is the most likely option.
6. ‘Running’ is most akin to ‘managing’.
7. The functions here have to be critical otherwise the
business fails.
8. ‘Entail’ here means ‘necessitate’.
9. ‘Cultivate’ means ‘to nurture’.
10. ‘Propound’ means ‘to suggest’.
11. ‘Saved’ and ‘created’ will not fit with ‘bad management’.
‘Toppled’ also won’t fit as we are not talking about
governments here.
12. ‘Cornerstone’ means a basic part.
13. ‘Squander’ means to ‘throw away’.
14. ‘Incidents’ cannot ‘suffer’ or ‘chase’. ‘Threaten’ is also an
unlikely choice.
15. We look for an opposite word to ‘intimidate’.
16. The first word in the word pair is the profession and the
second word is the tool.
17. The singular-plural pair.
18. The second word in the pair is a characteristic of the
first word in the pair.
19. ‘Implicate’ is an antonym of ‘exculpate’, ‘complicate’ is an
antonym of ‘simplify’.
20. Malinger is to feign illness just as flattery is to appreciate
in an insincere manner.
21. ‘Thor’ is the ‘God of Thunder’ as ‘Venus’ is the ‘God of
Love’.
22. Doggerel is poor or trivial poetry as a potboiler is pulp
fiction.
23. You need cunning to outfox someone and you need
speed to outstrip someone.
24. Olfactory pertains to the sense of smell (nose), whereas
gustatory pertains to the sense of taste (tongue).
25. A thread is inserted in the needle eye. Similarly a shoelace
is inserted in an eyelet.
26. To obfuscate means to confuse.
27. A demagogue is a person who wins people’s support by
manipulating them by appealing to their emotions or baser
instincts rather than their reason.
28. A premise here means an assumption.
29. A lexicon is the politician’s glossary of terms or dictionary.
30. Occult here means mysterious, beyond the range of
ordinary knowledge and hence concealed.
31. Overt means to be open about something and covert
means to be secretive.
32. Incorrigible means someone who cannot be corrected
and changed but reformable means someone who can
be reformed and changed.
33. Transparent and opaque are clear antonyms.
34. Quotidian means commonplace daily or usual. So the
opposite is unusual.
35. A gawky person is awkward. A dexterous person is
skilful.
36. A comely person is attractive.
37. An infirm person is weak.
38. An errant person is wayward.
39. Nurture and destroy are antonyms.
40. To kindle is to ignite a fire.
41. Gratified here means thankful, and hence pleased or
content.
42. A sympathizer is a person who subscribes to the views
of the LTTE and is hence an ally.
43. Credence here means to give weightage or believability
to Gowda’s assertion.
44. Brimming means to be full of something.
45. An emissary is an envoy.
46. To revoke means to cancel a law.
47. Matinee refers to the movies, specifically to an afternoon
show.
48. Condemned means convicted or punished.
49. ‘Expedient’ means ‘convenient’ or practical rather than
based on principles or moral grounds.
50. Impunity means to be free or exempt from blame.
51. The passage is from a political essay or a thesis.
52. Refer to paragraph 2.
XAT - Mock Page 25
53. Refer to paragraph 2.
54. Refer to paragraph 3.
55. Refer to paragraph 4.
56. ‘Hardly/Scarcely/Barely’ are ungrammatical with ‘than’.
57. ‘Demonstrated’, ‘made’ and ‘undergone’ do not fit in the
sentence at all.
58. A pole can be bent or twisted, not ‘removed’, or ‘thrown’
or ‘uprooted’ by a cyclone.
59. ‘Unmitigated’ means that the disaster was complete,
nothing or no one was spared.
60. The meteorological department does weather
forecasting.
61. ‘Ripped through’ means that the cyclone tore the city
apart, leaving a trail of destruction.
62. ‘Pitifully’ means that the disaster prediction system was
woefully inadequate.
63. A depression is a mass of air that has a low pressure
and that often causes rain.
64. The season brings storms or showers.
65. The weather experts can realize the development.
66. Refer to the last paragraph.
67. Refer to the last paragraph.
68. Refer to paragraph 3.
69. ‘Paucity’ in paragraph 1 talks of lack of time and space
for writing this article.
70. Refer to paragraph 1.
71. All the options have been mentioned.
72. Refer to paragraph 3.
73. Refer to paragraph 3.
74. A research paper would not have ‘paucity of time and
space’ while an article would.
75. Refer to paragraph 3.
76. Enhance is to increase, whereas abate is to decrease in
intensity or the like.
77. Catalyst tends to speed up things, whereas a brake
tends to reduce speed.
78. Witless is foolish and hence the opposite of brilliant.
79. Dexterous is skillful, and not awkward.
80. Wary is cautious, careful (because suspicious) and the
opposite of trusting.
81.
0
11 15 19 23
11 26 45 68
Difference of consecutive terms are in AP.
82. 64
12
,
32
10
,
16
8
,
8
6
,
4
4
,
2
2
83.
5
4 6 4 6
9 15 19 25
With alternate difference of 4 and 6 respectively.
84.
80
5 10 15 20
75 65 50 30
Difference are in AP.
85.
First order difference
Second order difference
4
5
6
47 95
48
23
24
11
12
9 20 43 90 185
86. 1. CA
2. CAA
3. CAAAA
4. CAAAAAAAA
5. CBAAAAA
6. CBBAA
87. It is never possible to make C disappear completely. So
BB cannot be constructed.
88. 1. CA
2. CAA
3. CAAAA
4. CAAAAAAAA
5.CAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
6. CBAAAAAAAAAAAAA
7. CBBAAAAAAAAAA
8. CBBBAAAAAAA
9. CBBBBAAAA
10. CBBBBBA (Rule 3)
11. CBBBA (Rule 4)
89. The words that can be formed are:
CA
CAA (Rule 2)
CBA (CAA ® CAAAA ® CBA)
CAB (CA ® CAB)
90. The valid words possible are:
CBB (Rule 2)
CAB (As we take CA from question 9)
CBA
CAA
Page 26 XAT - Mock
91. There are three possible ways of arranging the given
condition.
(i) Gents L Gents L Gents
So 3! × 2 = 12 ways.
(ii) Gents L Gents Gents L
3! × 2 = 12 ways.
Total = 12 + 12 = 24 ways.
(iii) The mirror image of the arrangement of (ii), i.e. L Gents
Gents L Gents. these are 12 ways.
So total 12 + 12 + 12 = 36
92. A(1, 3) = A(0, A(1, 2))
A(1, 2) = A(0, A(1, 1))
A(1, 1) = A(0, A(1, 0))
A(1, 0) = A(0, 0) = 1
Re substituting, A(1, 1) = A(0, 1) = 2
A(1, 2) = A(0, 2) = 3
A(1, 3) = A(0, 3) = 4
93. A(2, 0) = A(1, 0) = A(0, 0) = 0 + 1= 1
94. A(1, 2) = 3, as seen in solution of Q. No. 92.
95. A(1, 2) = A(0, A(1, 1)) by definition.
96. A(1, 1) = A(0, A(1, 0)) [By using the third condition of the
function definition]
97. A(1, y) = A(0, y) = y + 1 = 5, so y = 4.
Questions 98 to 107:
Skilled:
39 15 30 15 30 46 16 32 16 48
W1 P A F W2 P A F
33 11 22 11 33 20 8 16 14
W3 P A F W4 P A F
8
Total = 129 Total = 158
Total = 110 Total = 66
Unskilled:
20 6 12 26 22 9 18 18
W1 P A F W2 P A F
18 4 8 10 12 3 6 7
W3 P A F W4 P A F
6 9
4 3
98. Number of skilled workers in other departments
= [145 + 174 + 121 + 72] – [129 + 158 + 110 + 66] = 49
99. Number of unskilled workers in assembly
= 12 + 18 + 8 + 6 = 44
100. The number of people in the processing department
would increase by 28 7
4
1
´ =
Hence, increase in W4 grade skilled workers is
100 25%
28
7
´ = .
101. The final intersection of fabrication and assembly
department = 8 + 7 = 15
102. From the set representation we have the required ratio
is (12 + 20) : 32 Þ 1 : 1.
103. Skilled from W1 = 15
Unskilled from W4 = 3
Hence, the skilled in W1 exceed the unskilled from W4 by
400%.
104. Use the set representation answer is
[30 + 32 + 22 + 16 + 12 + 18 + 8 + 6] = 144
105. Use the set representation answer is
= (22 + 18) + (18 + 10) = 68
106. Use the set representation
Total number of employees
= [145 +174 + 121 + 72] + [100 + 90 + 50 + 36]
= 512 + 276 = 788
Number of workers of grade W1 in fabrication
department = 35 + 32 = 77
Approximate percentage = 10%.
107. Compare using the sets, we get the answer as (b).
108. 1442 + 1692 + (144 × 169)
124 + 134 + (122 × 132)
= {122 + (12 × 13) + 132}{122 –(12 × 13) + 132}
= 469 × 157
This is as per the formula
a4 + b4 + a2b2 = (a2 + ab + b2)(a2 – ab + b2).
109. Let us assume
ax = by = cz = a
\a = a1/ x, b = a1/ y and c = a1/ z
So b
c
a
b
=
Þ y
1
z
1
x
1
y
1
- -
a = a
Þ y
1
z
1
x
1
y
1
- = -
x
y
x z
2z
y
2
xz
x z
=
+
= Þ
+
Þ
XAT - Mock Page 27
110. f(27, 28) = f(18, 9) = (9, 0) = 9
111. f(6, 4) = f(4, 2) = f(2, 0) = 2
f(54, 52) = f(52, 2) = f(2, 0) = 2
112. f(15, 9) = f(9, 6) = f(6, 3) = f(3, 0) = 3
113. f(44, 15) = f(15, 14) = f(14, 1) = f(1, 0) = 1
114. f(9, 3) = f(3, 0) = 3 = f(51, 3) = f(3, 0) = 3
115. {23 – 1}
Every project has two ways, either selection or rejection.
So total number of ways are 2 × 2 × 2 = 8.
Subtracting one way (the case of all getting rejected),
we have 8 – 1 = 7 ways.
116. Two selections, i.e. (1, 3) and (2) meet at most one
condition.
117. All the remaining 5 ways other than the possibilities in
Q. 116, i.e. (1, 2, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1), (3).
118. The projects are (2, 3), (1, 2, 3), (1, 3), (1) and (3).
119. The digit is changing as in Fibonacci series
1, 1 + 1 = 2, 2 + 1 = 3, 3 + 2 = 5, 5 + 3 = 8, 8 + 5 = 13
and letters attached are in decreasing order,
i.e. W, V, U, T, S, R
\ 8S
120. First letter is in decreasing sequence
H G F E D C
V T R P N L
Second letter is in alternate decreasing series.
121. Two consecutive letters have a difference of three
letters between them.
I JKL M NOP Q RST U
122.
258
128 64 32 16 8
130 66 ? 18 10
34
123. Between two consecutive letters the number of letters
are in AP.
D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X
124.
2
1 1 2 2 4 4 8
3 4 6 8
12
? 16 24
125.
2
2 4 6 8 10
4 8 14 22 ? 32
126. No three statements are consistent.
127. All poets are creatures of fantasy. Ram is a poet. Ram
is a creature of fantasy. Those who are creatures of
fantasy can create fantasy.
128. None of the given answer choices are applicable,
though independently, two assertions can be
consistent to one another.
129. First three assertions are logically consistent. The
fourth and the fifth ones are not. Converting to the
assertions to a set of five, we have the following.
Assertion Example
1. ® Some A are B and some A are not B.
2. ® Some A are not B. (Some A are B.)
3. ® Some A are B.
4. ® All A are C.
5. ® Some A are D.
From the above analogues example, we can see that
1, 2 and 3 are consistent while 4 and 5 are not linked
to the first three.
130. ‘Unsuccessful’ and ‘dishonest’ are not linked. Similarly,
honest is linked neither with unsuccessful nor
successful. So none of the answer choices a, b, c
fits in.
131. Two balls out of five balls can be selected in 2
5C
ways = 10 ways.
Remaining three different balls can be distributed in
three different boxes in 33, i.e. = 27 ways.
So total number of ways = 27 × 10 = 270.
132. After putting ball 1 in urn I, the remaining four balls can
be distributed in four urns, in 44 ways = 256.
133. Every ball can be put in four ways. It can go to any of
the four urns. This means for each ball, there are four
ways.
\ Total ways = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 45 = 1024 ways.
134. The only possible way of distributing all five balls into
four urns is that one urn has two balls and other three
have one-one ball each. Two balls out of 5 can be
selected in 2
5C ways. These 2, 1, 1, 1 can be
distributed into 4 urns in 4! ways.
Total ways = 2
4!´ 5C = 240 ways.
135. All balls can go to any of the four urns.
\ Four ways.
136. Two out of three urns can be selected in 2
3C ways.
Both urns should be filled. So there is only one way of
dividing the balls into two groups (2 balls and 1 ball);
two balls can be selected in 2
3C ways and can be
distributed in two ways.
\ Total ways of distribution = C C2 2 18 ways
3
2
3 ´ ´ =
Page 28 XAT - Mock
137. The series increases by addition of (x2 – 1) to the
previous number, where x = 1, 2, 3, ....
1 + (12 – 1) = 1
1 + (22 –1) = 4
4 + (32 – 1) = 12
12 + (42 – 1) = 27
27 + (52 –1) = 51
51 + (62 – 1) = 86
138. Largest six-digit number using the given digits = 543210.
Smallest six-digit number using the given digits = 102345.
The difference = 440865.
139. 12(N) + 1(E) + 7(S) + 5(W) + 1(C) = 26
10.35%
251
26
=
140. Number of members having more than three children is
not known.

Thursday, February 7, 2008

CET Sample Paper

SECTION 1
Directions for Q.1 to 5: Choose from among the given alternatives the one which will be a
suitable to fill in the blank in most of the sentences.
1. A. Professional studies have become the ____ of the rich.
B. Every citizen has the _____ to speak, travel and live as he pleases.
C. He has a definite ______ over all his rivals.
D. Sheron no longer has the _____ of the company’s bungalow and car.
(a) advantage (b) privilege (c) right (d) concession
2. A. People sensed ______.
B. A bad _____ case had come in—a person with a smashed arm.
C. And then, without warning, _____ struck.
D. The dogs were the first to recognise the signs of oncoming _________.
(a) tragedy (b) accident (c) disaster (d) calamity
3. A. The men there have fought _____ and emotional withdrawal, and were more
capable of helping Jim.
B. But _____ does occasionally inflict all the adults.
C. A person who is deeply hurt feels very ______.
D. It is hard to survive this feeling of _______.
(a) dejection (b) lonely (c) trouble (d) depression
4. A. I have had a small power of ______.
B. Down with a very high fever, he suffers from frequents fits of _____.
C. They are now bitter enemies—all because of a small __________.
(d) Her ______ is the most creative thing she has ever possessed.
(a) illusion (b) imagination
(c) hallucination (d) misunderstanding
5. A. Communism states that every individual must live for the _____.
B. The ______ of the affairs of the nation is deplorable.
C. _______ have been laid down by the United States, states The Statesman
D. No _________ has succeeded in gaining complete autonomy from the Federal
government.
(a) state (b) nation (c) government (d) condition
Directions for Q. 6 to 10: Choose from among the given alternatives the one which will be a
suitable substitute for the underlined expression in each of the following.
6. The body of Macedonian infantry drawn up in close order was like a formidable castle of
steel.
(a) Phalanx (b) phagocyte (c) phenomenon (d) phaeton
7. The thrilling narrative caused the hair on the skin to stand erect.
(a) tension (b) horrification (c) terror (d) horror
8. The art and science of good eating and drinking is now a lost art.
(a) Gastronomy (b) Osteopathy (c) Gluttony (d) Cooking
9. The victim’s involuntary response to stimulus proved that he was still living.
(a) reactions (b) reflexes (c) feedback (d) communication
10. The marriage of the princess with the commoner caused a furore among the royalty.
(a) misalliance (b) mismatch (c) elopement (d) romance
Directions for questions 11 to 20: Choose the grammatically correct sentence from among the
four options given.
11. (a) I am not one of those who believe everything they hear.
(b) I am not one of these who believes everything I hear.
(c) I am not one of those who believes everything he hears.
(d) I am not one of those who believes in everything one hears.
12. (a) Cannot one do what one likes with one’s own?
(b) Cannot one do that one likes to do with his own?
(c) Cannot one do that one likes with his own?
(d) Cannot one do what he likes with his own
13. (a) There’s Mr. Som, whom they say is the best singer in the country.
(b) There’s Mr. Som, who they say is the best singer in the country.
(c) There is Mr. Som, whom they say is the best singer in the country.
(d) There is Mr. Som who, they say is the best singer in the country.
14. (a) Each of the students has done well.
(b) Each of the student has done well.
(c) Each of the students have done well.
(d) Each of the student have done well.
15. (a) Today we love, what tomorrow we hate; today we seek, what tomorrow we
shun, today we desire, what tomorrow we fear.
(b) Today, we love what tomorrow we hate, today, we seek what tomorrow we
shun, today, we desire what tomorrow we fear.
(c) Today we love what tomorrow we hate, today we seek what tomorrow we shun,
today we desire what tomorrow we fear.
(d) Today we love what tomorrow we hate; today we seek what tomorrow we shun;
today we desire what tomorrow we fear.
16. I am an entertainer. ________ , I have to keep smiling because in my heart laughter and
sorrow have an affinity.
(a) Even if I have tears in me (b) Even though I am depressed inside
(c) While entertaining people (d) In the entertainment business
17. Political power is just as permanent as today’s newspaper. Ten years down the line,
______, who the most powerful man in any state was today.
(a) who cares
(b) nobody will remember what was written in today’s newspaper or
(c) few will know, or care about
(d) when a lot of water will have passed under the bridge, who will care
18. When we call others dogmatic, what we really object to is _________ .
(a) their giving the dog a bad name
(b) their holding dogmas that are different from our own.
(c) the extremism that goes along with it.
(d) the subversion of whatever they actually believe in concomitantly
19. Although it has been more than 50 years since Satyajit Ray made Pather Panchali,
_________ refuse to go away from the mind.
(a) the haunting images (b) its haunting images
(c) its haunted images (d) the haunt of its images.
20. _________ , the more they remain the same.
(a) People all over the world change
(b) There more people change
(c) The more they are different
(d) The less people change
21. The stock markets ________ . The state they are in right now speaks volumes about this
fact.
(a) is the barometer of public confidence.
(b) are the best indicators of public sentiment.
(c) are used to trade in expensive shares.
(d) are not used to taking stock of all markets.
Directions for Q. 22 to 24: Choose the pair, which does not exhibit the relationship similar to that
expressed in the capitalised pair.
22. TEMPERATURE: HEAT
(a) votes : popularity (b) IQ : intelligence
(c) ohms : resistance (d) speed : distance
23. STUBBORN: ADAPTABLE
(a) stupid : bright (b) moral : amoral
(c) inherent : extraneous (d) friend : enemy
24. PROGRESS: PROGRESSIVE
(a) terror : terrorist (b) sympathy : sympathizer
(c) revolution : revolutionary (d) reform : reformist
Directions Q 25 to 34: Pick out the most effective words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
25. Indications are that the government is …… to the prospect of granting bonus to the
striking employees.
(a) aligned (b) obliged (c) reconciled (d) relieved
26. Shivalal ……. classical music. He always prefers Bhimsen Joshi to Asha Bhonsale, and
Pandit Jasraj to Kumar Sanu.
(a) adores (b) apprehends (c) encompasses (d) cultivates
27. As a general rule, politicians do not ……. centre stage
(a) forward (b) forbid (c) forgive (d) forsake
28. The ……. study on import of natural gas from Iran through a pipeline would be
completed shortly.
(a) natural (b) calculated (c) economic (d) feasibility
29. His party is solely to be blamed for the political ……. in the country.
(a) devaluation (b) revival (c) advocacy (d) stalemate
30. His face was not made up of ………. and ……… but by the sheer force of thinking.
(a) powder, rouge (b) mouth, eyebrows
(c) skin, bone (d) textures, complexion
31. It has been universally ………. that widespread destruction must be necessary….. with
modern warfare.
(a) realised, appendage (b) accepted, antidote
(c) acknowledged, concomitant (d) understood, threshold
32. For a ………… reader, the author’s influence is like a …………
(a) discerning, spell (b) cold, force
(c) good, revelation (d) perceptive, panorama
33. If you have come to the conference table with such an ……….. attitude, we cannot expect
to reach a …………. agreement.
(a) ancillary, lasting (b) effervescent, conclusive
(c) indolent, steadfast (d) obdurate, harmonious
34. It is true that the kind of specialised knowledge which is required for various kinds of
skills, has little to do with wisdom. With every increase of knowledge and skill,
knowledge becomes more necessary, for every such increase ………. our capacity for evil.
(a) augments (b) incites (c) excites (d) makes
Directions for Q. 35 to 39: Each of these questions contains six statements followed by four sets
of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the statements are most logically related
35. A. No fishes breathe through lungs. B. All fishes have scales.
C. Some fishes breed upstream. D. All whales breathe through lungs.
E. No whales are fishes. F. All whales are mammals.
(a) ABC (b) BCD (c) ADE (d) DEF
36. A. All men are men of scientific ability.
B. Some women are women of scientific ability.
C. All men are men of artistic genius.
D. Some men and women are of scientific ability.
E. Some men of artistic genius are men of scientific ability.
F. Some women of artistic genius are women of scientific ability.
(a) ACD (b) ACE (c) DEF (d) ABC
37. A. Some mammals are carnivores. B. All whales are mammals.
C. All whales are aquatic animals. D. All whales are carnivores.
E. Some aquatic animals are mammals. F. Some mammals are whales.
(a) ADF (b) ABC (c) AEF (d) BCE
38. A. All roses are fragrant. B. All roses are majestic.
C. All roses are plants. D. All roses need air.
E. All plants need air. F. All plants need water.
(a) CED (b) ACB (c) BDC (d) CFE
39. A. All candid men are persons who acknowledge merit in a rival.
B. Some learned men are very candid.
C. Some learned men are not persons who acknowledge merit in a rival.
D. Some learned men are persons who are very candid.
E. Some learned men are not candid.
F. Some persons who recognize merit in a rival are candid.
(a) ABE (b) ACF (c) ADE (d) BAF
40. A. All bartenders are wine tasters.
B. Some bartenders are wine tasters.
C. No wine tasters die of heart attack.
D. No bartenders die of heart attack.
E. Some wine tasters do not die of heart attack.
F. Some who do not die of heart attack are wine tasters.
(a) FDE (b) CAD (c) BCD (d) BFE
PASSAGE- 1
Modern computers are masters of disguise. They have to be. For although technological progress
is good at making computer hardware quicker, smaller and cheaper, it often leaves behind the
software that made the machines useful, in the first place. Since many people resent having to
junk perfectly good programs when they buy the latest computer, a host of tricks has been
developed over the past few years to stop software becoming redundant. The idea is to get
modern computers to impersonate or emulate older ones, providing the appropriate environment
in which to run old-fashioned software.
Emulation, once confined to a few niches of the computer industry, is now widespread. Indeed, it
goes on inside many computers all the time, bridging the gap between different processors and
operating systems. Intel’s Pentium Pro, Pentium II and the new Pentium III chips contain special
hardware to provide backwards compatibility with older processors while allowing for
improvements in performance. Since 1994, Apple’s Macintosh computers have contained
software to enable them to emulate older models that used a different microprocessor. And
perhaps the best-known example is Sun’s cross-platform language, Java. Called a Java virtual
machine, something that does not even physically exist, it allows software to run on any device
capable of emulating a fictitious computer.
The simplest sort of software emulator, called an interpreter, works by looking up each
instruction from the foreign program to find how to carry out the equivalent operation on the
host machine. This slow but reliable method allows modern PCs, for example, to emulate arcadegames
machines from the 1980s whose microprocessors ran at a fraction of the speed.
More sophisticated are just-in-time compilers, or JITs. After examining each instruction and
translating it into the native format of the system that it is running on, JITs keep the translated
code around in case it is needed again. And since most software repeats itself and small chunks
of code are typically run many times in a program, the chances are high that the translated code
will indeed be re-used. That usually makes a JIT faster than an interpreter.
The power of the modern computer means, however, that even cleverer emulators are now being
developed. Dynamic Recompiling (DR) emulators do not stop at translating instructions; they go
on to analyze how the new code works and translate the clumsiest bits all over again in order to
improve efficiency. Connectix, a company based in California, developed one such emulator, the
Virtual Game Station (VGS). It emulates Sony’s Play Station on a Macintosh personal computer.
Sony, which launched a new Play Station 2, is cross about this, but not because VGS might affect
the sales of consoles, which are sold at a loss, and encourage people to buy the games. It is cross,
the firm claims, because VGS might not be up to the job and customers might accordingly get an
inferior impression of Sony games. The American courts have so far, however, ruled in favour of
Connectix.
Connectix is a veteran of the emulator business. It sells also a program that enables a Macintosh
to impersonate a PC. But emulation is encouraging entrepreneurs also to start new companies.
That is a sure sign that something significant, and possibly lucrative, is happening.
Two of these start-ups—TeraGen and a secretive outfit called Transmeta—are following the
hardware route. They have adopted a variation on the approach used by Intel to make its new
chips faster while remaining compatible with earlier microprocessors. This involves translating
the intricate instructions favoured by earlier chip designers into simpler rudimentary
instructions, called micro-operations that can be rearranged by the processor to improve
performance. TeraGen’s approach builds on this idea, but generalizes it so that the company’s
custom-built chips can translate instructions from, and hence emulate, more than one kind of
processor at a time.
Although Transmeta has not disclosed its plans, a patent granted to the company in November
1998 suggests that it, too, is working on a processor based on generalized micro-operations. In
addition, Transmeta’s technology appears to be a hybrid. The original code is translated using
software, while the hardware handles the housekeeping associated with emulating multiple
chips at once, a trick that could enable computers to don a host of new disguises in the future.
41. According to the author, modern computers are masters of disguise because
(a) computer hardware is ever quicker, smaller and faster
(b) some people resent having to junk perfectly good programs
(c) modern computers either impersonate or emulate older ones
(d) none of the above
42. The passage is most likely to be
(a) the continuation of a preceding passage
(b) the continuation of a subsequent passage
(c) the last part of a bigger passage
(d) none of the above
43. Emulation
(a) goes on inside many computers all the time
(b) provides backwards compatibility with older processes
(c) bridges the gap between different processors and operating systems
(d) all of the above.
44. The word ‘emulate,’ as used in the passage, can best be replaced by
(a) imitate (b) work as well or better than
(c) impersonate (d) disguise
45. What is Java, according to the passage?
(a) A software program
(b) A language that runs on a fictitious computer
(c) A computer language that enables software to run on different processors
(d) All of the above
46. Why is a JIT faster compared to an interpreter?
(a) It is the more sophisticated computer
(b) It keeps the translated code around in case the latter is needed again
(c) It translates each instruction and adapts it to the native format of the system.
(d) None of the above
47. Why is Sony cross about the VGS developed by Connectix?
(a) VGS might affect Sony’s sales.
(b) VGS might be sold at a loss to encourage people to buy it
(c) VGS might not be up to customer expectations
(d) All of the above
48. The tone of the authorial voice can best be described as being
(a) matter-of-fact (b) laudatory (c) sardonic (d) none of the above
49. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Interpreters have helped to emulate arcade games machines right from the 1980s
onwards
(b) Trans Meta is working on designing a processor based on generalised microoperations
(c) The VGS developed by Connectix can be used only on a Macintosh personal
computer.
(d) None of the above
50. An ideal title for the passage would be:
(a) Connectix vs. Sony (b) Emulation is the key
(c) All about modern compilers (d) None of the above
SECTION 2
Directions Q. 1 to 14: these questions are independent of each other.
1. A student gets an aggregate of 60% marks in five subjects in the ratio 10 : 9 : 8 : 7 : 6. If the
passing marks are 50% of the maximum marks and each subjects has the same maximum
marks, in how many subjects did he pass the exam?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
2. In how many ways can the eight directors, the Vice-chairman and the Chairman of a firm
be seated at a round-table, if the Chairman has to sit between the Vice-chairman and a
director?
(a) 9! ? 2 (b) 2 ? 8! (c) 2 ? 7! (d) None of these
3. If log2[log7(x2 - x + 37) ] = 1, then what could be the value of x?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) None of these
4. After a discount of 11.11%, a trader still makes a gain of 14.28%. At how many percent
above the cost price does he mark his goods?
(a) 28.56% (b) 35% (c) 22.22% (d) None of these
5. An old man has Rs. (1! + 2! + 3! + ...+ 50!), all of which he wants to divide equally
(without fractions) among his n children. Then, n may be
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11
6. A dealer buys dry fruit at Rs.100, Rs. 80 and Rs. 60 per kg. He mixes them in the ratio 3 : 4
: 5 by weight, and sells them at a profit of 50%. At what price does he sell the dry fruit?
(a) Rs. 80/kg (b) Rs. 100/kg (c) Rs. 95/kg (d) None of these
7. An express train travelling at 80 kmph overtakes a goods train, twice as long and going
at 40 kmph on a parallel track, in 54 seconds. How long will the express train take to
cross a station 400 m long?
(a) 36 sec (b) 45 sec (c) 27 sec (d) None of these
8. A student, instead of finding the value of 7/8th of a number, found the value of 7/18th of
the number. If his answer differed from the actual one by 770, find the number.
(a) 1584 (b) 2520 (c) 1728 (d) 1656
9. P and Q are two integers such that P ? Q = 64. Which of the following cannot be the value
of P + Q?
(a) 20 (b) 65 (c) 16 (d) 35
10. The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest scores
are not considered, the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, find the lowest.
(a) 55 (b) 60 (c) 62 (d) Cannot be determined.
11. If the roots, x1, and x2, of the quadratic equation x2 - 2x + c = 0 also satisfy the equation
7x2 - 4x1 = 47, then which of the following is true?
(a) c = - 15 (b) x1 = - 5, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = 4.5, x2 = - 2.5 (d) None of these
12. The sum of the areas of two circles which touch each other externally is 153?. If the sum
of their radii is 15, find the ratio of the larger to the smaller radius.
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these
13. If m and n are integers divisible by 5, which of the following is not necessarily true?
(a) m - n is divisible by 5. (b) m2 - n2 is divisible by 25.
(c) m + n is divisible by 10 (d) None of the above.
14. Which of the following is true?
(a) 7³² = (73)² (b) 7³² > (73)2 (c) 7³² < (73)2 (d) None of these Directions Q 15 to 16: A survey of 200 people in a community who watched at least one of the three channels—BBC, CNN and DD showed that 80% of the people watched DD, 22% watched BBC, and 15% watched CNN. 15. What is the maximum percent of people who can watch all the three channels? (a) 12.5 (b) 8.5 (c) 17 (d) Insufficient data. 16. If 5% of the people watched DD and CNN, 10% watched DD and BBC, then what percent of the people watched BBC and CNN only? (a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 8.5% (d) cannot be determined Directions Q 17 to 19: These questions are independent of each other. 17. A man earns x% on the first 2000 rupees and y% on the rest of his income. If he earns Rs 700 from Rs 4000 and Rs 900 from Rs 5000 of income, find x. (a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 35 (d) None of these 18. AB is the diameter of the given circle, while points C and D lie on the circumference as shown. If AB is 15 cm, AC is 12 cm and BD is 9 cm, find the area of the quadrilateral ACBD. (a) 54? (b) 216? (c) 162? (d) None of these 19. P, Q and R are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three times P is three less than two times R, find the value of R. (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11 20. ABC is a three-digit number in which A > 0. The value of ABC is equal to the sum of the
factorials of its three digits. What is the value of B?
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 2
B
C
D
A
SECTION 3
Directions Q. 1 to 5: are based on the graph given below:
Solubility - Temperature relationships for various salts.
(The Y-axis denotes Solubility (kg/litres of water)
0
0.2
0.4
0.6
0.8
1
1.2
1.4
1.6
1.8
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
Potassium Chlorate Potassium Chloride
Potassium Nirate Sodium Chloride
Sodium Chlorate Sodium Nitrate
1. Which of the following salts has greatest solubility?
(a) Potassium Chlorate at 800C. (b) Potassium Chloride at 350C.
(c) Potassium Nitrate at 390C. (d) Sodium Chloride at 850C.
2. Approximately, how many kg of Potassium Nitrate can be dissolved in 10 litres of water
at 300C?
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.4 (c) 4 (d) 0.35
3. By what % is the solubility of Potassium Chlorate in water increased as the water is
heated from 300C to 800C?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 300
4. If 1 mole of Potassium Chloride weighs 0.7456 kg, approximately, how many moles of
Potassium Chloride can be dissolved in 100 litres of water at 360C?
(a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 48 (d) 54
5. Which of the salts has greatest change in solubility in kg/litre of water between 150C and
250C?
(a) Potassium Chlorate (b) Potassium Nitrate
(c) Sodium Chlorate (d) Sodium Nitrate
Directions: For questions 6 to 9: refer to the pie-chart given below:
6. What fraction of Ghosh babu’s weight consists of muscular and skin proteins?
(a) 1/13 (b) 1/30 (c) 1/20 (d) Cannot be determined
7. Ratio of distribution of protein in muscle to the distribution of protein in skin is:
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 10 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3½ : 1
8. What percent of Ghosh babu’s body weight is made up of skin?
(a) 0.15 (b) 10 (c) 1.2 (d) Cannot be determined
9. In terms of total body weight, the portion of material other than water and protein is
closest to:
(a) 3/20 (b) 1/15 (c) 85/100 (d) 1/20
Directions Q. 10 to 13: are based on the following information:
The following table gives the sales details for text books and reference books at Primary
/Secondary/Higher Secondary/Graduate Levels.
Year Primar
y
Secondar
y
Higher
Secondary
Graduate
Level
1975 42137 8820 65303 25343
1976 53568 10285 71602 27930
1977 58770 16437 73667 28687
1978 56872 15475 71668 30057
1979 66213 17500 78697 33682
1980 68718 20177 82175 36697
10. What is the growth rate of sales of books at primary school level from 1975 to 1980?
(a) 29% (b) 51% (c) 63% (d) 163%
11. Which of the categories shows the lowest growth rate from 1975 to 1980?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary
(c) Higher secondary (d) Graduate Level
Water
70%
Protein
15%
Other dry
material
15%
Others
52%
Bones
15%
Skin
8%
Muscles
25%
Distribution of materials in
Ghoshbabu’s body (as % of total
weight)
Occurrence of proteins in
difference organs in Ghoshbabu’s
body
12. Which category had the highest growth rate in the period?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Higher secondary (d) Graduate Level
13. Which of the categories had either a consistent growth or a consistent decline in the
period shown?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Higher secondary (d) Graduate Level
Directions 14 to 17: are based on the graph given below:
Number of Engineering Students (in hundreds) at institutions of different kinds
14. What was the total number of engineering students in 1989-90?
(a) 28500 (b) 4400 (c) 4200 (d) 42000
15. The growth rate in students of Govt. Engineering colleges compared to that of Private
Engineering colleges between 1988-89 and 1889-90 is:
(a) more (b) less (c) almost equal (d) 3/2
16. The total number of Engineering students in 1991-92, assuming a 10% reduction in the
number over the previous year, is:
(a) 5700 (b) 57000 (c) 44800 (d) None of these
17. In 1990-91, what percent of Engineering students were studying at IITs?
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 12
Choose ((a): If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but
cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
Choose (b): If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (c): If the question can be answered by using both statements together, but
cannot be answered using either statement alone.
Choose (d): If the question cannot be answered even by using both statements
together.
18. How much time will Mohan take to complete a job?
A. Suresh is one-and-a-half times as efficient as Mohan.
B. Radha is ¾ as efficient as Suresh, who completes the work in 20 days.
19. What is the % loss or gain in deal made by Ashish? It is given that Ramesh sold each of
the two cows for Rs x, the first one sold at P% profit and the other at L% loss. Q is real
number.
0
50
100
150
200
250
300
1988-89 1989-90 1990-91
Private Engg College Govt. Engg. College
Regional Engg College IIT's
A. PQ = 5 B. QL = 7
20. What is the present age of the son of Anil? It is given that at present the sum of the age of
Anil and his son is x years. ‘t’ years ago the product of the ages of Anil and his son was
‘y’ times the age of Anil. ‘x’, ‘t’ and ‘y’ are natural numbers.
A. Value of ‘x’ is known. B. Value of ‘y’ is known.
21. What will be the HCF of r and w? It is given that LCM of these two numbers is ‘t’ times
the HCF of the given numbers and the sum of the LCM and HCF of the numbers is R.
A. Value of (R/(t + y)) is given. B. t + y = t + y² = t + y³; y ? 0
22. What is the slope of line ‘p’?
A. Slope of the line m is ¾.
B. ‘p’ and ‘m’ are perpendicular to each other.
SECTION 4
Directions for Q. 1 to 5: Refer to the following information and the answer the following
questions.
People Power Corporation presently employs three Managers (A, B and C) and five recruitment
agents (D, E, F, G and H). The company is planning to open a new office in San Jose to manage
placement of software professionals in the US. It is planning to relocate two of the three managers
and three of the five recruitment agents to the office at San Jose. As it is an organization which is
highly people oriented the management wants to ensure that the individuals who do not function
well together should not be made as a part of the team going to the US. The following
information was available to the HR department of People Power Corporation.
? Managers A and C are at each others throat and therefore cannot be sent as a team to the
new office.
? C and E are excellent performers in their own right. However, they do not function
together as a team. They should be separated.
? D and G have had a major misunderstanding during the last office picnic. After the
picnic these two have not been in speaking terms and should therefore not be sent as a
team.
? D and F are competing for a promotion that is due in another 3 months. They should not
be a team.
1. If D goes to the new office which of the following is (are) true?
I. C cannot go II. A cannot go III. H must also go
(a) I only (b) II and III only
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
2. If A is to be moved as one of the Managers, which of the following cannot be a possible
working unit?
(a) ABDEH (b) ABFGH (c) ABEGH (d) ABDGH
3. If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible?
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5
4. Given the group dynamics of the Managers and the recruitment agents, which of the
following is sure to find a berth in the San Jose office?
(a) B (b) H (c) G (d) E
5. If C is sent to the San Jose office which member of the staff cannot go with C?
(a) B (b) D (c) G (d) F
Directions for Q. 6 - 11: Refer to the following data and answer the following questions.
It is a game based on the position you take in a clock. You are at the 1 O’clock position. You can
move one step clockwise, 1 step anti clockwise or to a place that is diametrically opposite yours.
For example, from 1 O’clock if you move clockwise you will be at 2 O’clock. As you start the
game, you are at 1 O’clock position and your score is 1. If you move a step clockwise, add the
value of the time in that position to your score to give you the new score. If you move a step
anticlockwise, add the value of the time in that position and subtract 2 from your score. If you
move a step diametrically opposite, add the value of the time in that position to your score and
subtract 4 from your score to get the new score. You cannot get back to a position that you have
already visited.
6. What will be your minimum score after the third move?
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) None of these
7. What will be your maximu m score after the second move?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 24
8. If you had moved a step anticlockwise in the first move, you could not have reached one
of the following positions in the third move.
(a) 10 O’clock (b) 5 O’clock (c) 7 O’clock (d) 6 O’clock
9. What is the shortest number of moves that you require to reach the 5 O’clock position
When you start from 1 O’clock position?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 2
10. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady
related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Grandmother
11. If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P – Q means P is the mother of Q and P * Q means P
is the sister of Q. Which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of R, if you can
assume a third person K to be involved in establishing the relationship?
(a) M-K*P (b) M+K*R (c) M+K-R (d) M+K+R
Directions for Q. 12 - 13: Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
A, B, C and D are four ladies who are friends of Elizabeth. On one Saturday the four of them
visited Elizabeth at her weekend getaway.
I. The time of each visit was as follows: A at 8 O’clock, B at 9 O’clock, C at 10
O’clock and D at 11 O clock.
II. At least one woman visited Elizabeth between A and B.
III. At least one of C or D visited Elizabeth before A.
IV. C did not visit Elizabeth between B and D.
12. Who visited Elizabeth first?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
13. Who visited Elizabeth last?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Insufficient data
Directions for Q. 14 to 19: Refer to the following line charts and answer the following questions.
The two line charts provide the fluctuation of three international currencies Dollar, Pound and
the Deutche Mark during the six month period July to December of a particular year.
Dollar/Pound Exchange Rate
1.5
1.52
1.54
1.56
1.58
1.6
1.62
1.64
1.66
Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Month
Dollar/ Pound
DM/Dolar Exchange Rate
1. 34
1. 36
1. 38
1 . 4
1. 42
1. 44
1. 46
1. 48
1 . 5
1. 52
Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Month
DM/Dollar
14. In which month was the DMP/Pound exchange rate the highest?
(a) September (b) August (c) December (d) November
15. Between which two months was the fall in DMP/Pound exchange rate the lowest?
(a) Nov-Dec (b) Aug-Sep (c) Oct-Nov (d) Jul-Aug
16. If I wanted to purchase Pounds using Deutsche Marks, in which month could I have
purchased the maximum number of pounds for DM 120?
(a) November (b) August (c) July (d) December
17. If one Dollar cost Rs. 48, how many tones of Tea should India export to US to earn an
export income of $ 100 mn if the cost per kg of tea is Rs 64?
(a) 7500 tonnes (b) 75000 tonnes
(c) 7.5 lakh tonnes (d) None of these
18 .If one DM is equal to Rs. 30, how many Rupees would I have got by converting 10
Pounds to dollars and the dollars to DM and DM to Rupees in the month of August?
(a) Rs. 74.80 (b) Rs. 724 (c) Rs. 747.80 (d) Can’t be determined
19 What was the highest % change in the exchange rate fluctuation of Dolalr/Pound in this
six month period?
(a) 2.60% (b) 2.74% (c) 1.22% (d) 1.96%
Directions for Q. 20 – 21: Refer to the following information and answer following questions.
Speaker: The great majority of people in this city have access to the best medical care available any
where in the world.
Opposition: There are thousand of poor in this city who cannot afford to pay to see a
doctor.
20. Which of the following is true of the opposition’s comment?
(a) It constitutes a hasty generalization on few examples
(b) It cities statistical evidence which tends to corroborate the views of the speaker
(c) It tries to compare two unrelated data and draws a contrarian conclusion
(d) It is not necessarily inconsistent with the speaker’s remarks.
21. A possible objection that opposition could have fielded to the spearker’s comments
would be to point to the existence of
(a) a city which has more doctors than this city
(b) a city in which people are given better medical care than this city
(c) a city which has a higher per capita hospital bed than this city
(d) the amount spent on medical insurance for people of this city
Direction for Q. 22 to 25. Refer to the diagram below and answer the following questions.
Shown below is the number of people working in the various levels of a top secret nuclear plant
at Hamshedpur.
Core
12
Securit
Technical
Administration
Peripherals 54
22. If there are 355 people in all working in the plant, only 20% of whom work in and within
the technical layer. How many work in the administration layer?
(a) 284 (b) 230 (c) 218 (d) 262
23. Security rules state that there must be at least 3 personnel in and within the security layer
for every person in the core group. How many people can there be in and within the
security layer, if the total of the peripheral and security personnel must not be more than
110 (for cost purposes)?
(a) 40 (b) 32 (c) 58 (d) 30
24. If the number of people in the plant is slashed by 15%, 50% of which is in the peripheral
layer resulting in the number of personnel in that layer dropping to 42, what was the
original number of employees in the plant?
(a) 240 (b) 120 (c) 180 (d) 160
25. If only the employees at or outside the administration layer are the ones who do not need
an extra security clearance and if there are 360 people in the factory and 48 people work
in the administration layer, what percentage of employees need security clearance?
(a) 70% (b) 72% (c) 74% (d) 75%
Directions for Q. 26 - 28: These questions are based on the following data:
Mr. and Mrs. Sharma and Mr. and Mrs. Gupta, during a picnic, competed among themselves for
the chess crown. Overall 3 games were played on a knock out basis, i.e., after the first game was
decided the loser was eliminated and winner played the next game and so on.
Further,
(a) Sharmas won less number of games than Guptas
(b) The women won one game and the men won two games
(c) In only the first game were the two players married to each other.
26. Who did not lose a game?
(a) Mr. Sharma (b) Mrs. Sharma (c) Mr. Gupta (d) Mrs. Gupta
27. Who played & won the first game?
(a) Mr. & Mrs. Sharma – Mr. Sharma
(b) Mr. & Mrs. Gupta – Mr. Gupta
(c) Either (a) or (b) – Mr. Sharma or Mr. Gupta
(d) Either (a) or (b) – Mrs. Sharma or Mrs.
28. Which was a all-men game?
(a) Second (b) Third
(c) Either Second or Third (d) Both Second and Third
Directions for Q. 29 – 33: Refer to following passage:
Six participants in the National Billiards Championship, who played in the super six stage of the
championship all belonged to different states. The six states are Gujarat, Orissa, Karnataka,
Maharasthra, MP and UP. The six participants are aged 18, 26, 32, 34, 38, 44 years (not necessarily
in order).
1. Pravan is the oldest while Laxman is the youngest player.
2. Player from MP is aged 32
3. Minal comes from Orissa but Laxman is not from Gujarat
4. Pankaj and Kunal belong to Karnataka and UP resp. They are not aged 38 or 18
5. Asim, 32 is not from Maharashtra or Gujarat
6. Minal, Laxman and Pankaj are neither the oldest nor in their twenties.
29. Which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Pravin 44, is from Orissa (b) Kunal, 26, is from MP
(c) Pankaj, 26, is from Karnakata (d) Laxman, 18, is from Maharashtra
30. Which of the following statements must not be true?
(a) Pravin 44, belongs to Gujarat (b) Pankaj, 36, belongs to Karnataka
(c) Asim, 32, belongs to Orissa (d) Laxman, 18, belongs to Maharasthra
31. Pravin belongs to the state of
(a) Gujarat (b) Orissa (c) Maharashtra (d) None of these
32. Which player is aged 34?
(a) Kunal (b) Pankaj (c) Pravin (d) Kunal or Pankaj
33. Which player is in his 20s?
(a) Minal (b) Pankaj (c) Kunal (d) Pravin
Directions for Q. 34 – 36: Directions for questions 26 to 32: Read the following information and
answer the questions given after that accordingly.
a. There is a group of six persons Angapoora, Bakralu, Chaparganju, Drakula, Engumakora and
Fasoolara from a family. They are Professor, Clerk, Trader, Tailor, Surgeon and Pilot.
b. The Surgeon is the grandfather of Fasoolara, who is a Professor.
c. The clerk ‘Drakula’ is married to Angapoora.
d. Chaparganju, the Tailor is married to the Trader.
e. Bakralu is the mother of Engumakora and Fasoolara.
f. There are two married to couples in the family.
34. What is the profession of Engumakora?
(a) Surgeon (b) Clerk. (c) Professor (d)Pilot (e) None of these
35. How is Angapoora related to Engumakora?
(a) Brother (b) Uncle (c) Father (d) Grandfather (e) None of these
36. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) One (b) Three (c) Four (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
Directions for Q. 37 to 40: Consider the following statements where every person gets exactly
one different dish:
1. Ria will not get soup unless Janet gets hot coffee.
2. Gia will not get gums unless Veena gets soup.
3. Veena will not get tea unless Gia gets soup.
4. Janet will not get gums unless Ria gets hot coffee.
5. Janet will not get hot coffee unless Veena gets gums.
6. Gia will not get hot coffee unless Ria gets tea.
7. Gia will not get tea unless Ria gets hot coffee.
8. Ria will not get hot coffee unless Gia gets soup.
9. Veena will not get gums unless Ria gets the hot coffee.
10. Janet will not get tea unless Ria gets gums.
11. Gia will not get soup unless Ria gets gums.
37. Who gets gums?
(a) Ria (b) Gia (c) Janet (d) Veena
38. Who gets soup?
(a) Janet (b) Veena (c) Gia (d) Ria
39. Who gets hot coffee?
(a) Gia (b) Veena (c) Ria (d) Janet
40. Who does Janet get?
(a) Hot coffee (b) Soup (c) Gums (d) Tea
41. Dileep, Martin and Salman married Ranjana, Vidisha and Karuna (not necessarily in that
order). Each of the couples has a son; their names being Saumitra, Shyam and Subhash.
Further
i. Ranjana married six months before Karuna did.
ii. Salman was first to marry & Dileep, the last. Al the marriages took place in 1998
between February (month of first marriage) and September (month of last
marriage).
iii. None of the couples had a child within one year of their marriage.
iv. Saumitra was born within 16 months of his parents’ wedding. He was not born
between August & Janauary both months inclusive
v. Karuna’s son was born within 16 months of her marriage and Vidisha’s exactly
24 months after the marriage.
vi. Subash was born an American citizen in January.
Who are Saumitra’s parents
(a) Dileep-Ranjana (b) Salman-Karuna
(c) Martin-Ranjana (d) Martin-Karuna
42. Sangt Kripalchand had been preaching daily how important it was not to tell a lie. At
last, Seth Jhuthamal decided to heed Sant’s teaching. So, henceforth, he would not tell a
lie on Monday, Wednesday, Thursday and Saturday; on other days he would continue to
tell lies only.
Presently, a customer comes to his jewellery shop and Seth Juthamal ties to close a sales
deal.
“But what is the guarantee that the jewellery is of specified parity” the customer asks.
For today is Tuesday, the Santji’s beloved day, when I don’t speak a lie.
“What if I make purchase tomorrow”, the customer enquires.
“Tomorrow may be too late as being Saturday I may lie that day” insisted Seth ji.
So, this is how the conversation took place.
What could be the day of this conversation?
(a) Friday (b) Tuesday (c) Sunday (d) Any one of these
43. Every month Chess Federation of India publishes ranking of Indian Chess Players. They
actually complement the FIDE lists which are brought out at longer intervals. It was seen,
observing monthly lists for last tear, that top six players in the list remained same
throughout the year but there was considerable mutual change of rankings among these
six. Thus ranking for January 2003 as follows:
January 2003 was as follows:
1 P. Harikrishna 2. D. Barua 3. K. Humpy
2. S. Chanda 5. K. Ramesh 6. S.S Ganguli
The list of rankings for Feb 2003 had an entirely different look with each of the six ranked
in a position from the previous one. The following facts are known :
1. No one else had his/her ranking changed by as many places as D. Barua, whose
change in ranking was the greatest of the six.
2. The product of Chanda’s ranking for the two months was the same as product of
Ganguli’s ranking for the two months.
Who was ranked 5th in the list for February 2003.
(a) P. Harikrishna (b) D. Barua (c) K. Humpy (d) None of these
44. In the following sum
E E E EEE
F F F XXX
+ G G G +YYY
J K LM JKLM
where each of the different letters stand for a different digits, E stands for
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
Directions for Q 45 - 46: Refer to the following data
There are four bags on a shelf all in a straight horizontal line. Each bag contains a pair of socks
and a tie. No bag contains a pair of socks and tie the same colour as the bag or each other. All
four bags, pairs of socks and ties are either red, green, blue or yellow. No two bags are the same
colour, no two ties are the same colour and no two pairs of socks are the same colour.
The red tie is in the bag next to the bag containing the pair of green socks. The yellow socks are in
the bag next to the green bag which is next to the bag containing the green tie. The bag on the far
left is red. The blue socks are in the bag next to the bag containing the blue tie. The yellow bag is
next to the blue bag which is next to the bag containing the red socks. The green tie is in the blue
bag or the yellow bag. The yellow tie is not in the red bag which is not, and is not next to the bag
containing the yellow socks.
45.Which bag is the right most?
(a) Yellow (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Yellow or Blue
46.Which combination of bag tie and socks (in that order) is in the extreme left?
(a) Red- Blue-Green (b) Red–Green-Yellow
(c) Red-Yellow-Red (d) Red-Yellow-Yellow
Directions for Q. 47- 48: Refer to the following data
In a city state, government officials never tell the truth and those who are not government
officials always tell the truth. A visitor meets three residents of the city state and asks one of
them,” Are you a government official?”
The first resident answer the question. The second native then reports that the first resident
denied being a government official. The third resident says that the first resident is a government
officials.
47. How many of these three residents are not government officials?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) Insufficient data
48. What is the order in which the three residents statements are true/false
(a) True, True, False (b) False, False, True
(c) True, True, True (d) Insufficient data
49. In a batch of 120 postgraduate History students each student has to select at least one
subject out of American History, Ancient Indian History. Modern Indian History and
History of Modern Europe. 90 students selected History of Modern Europe and an equal
number. American History. 105 students selected Ancient Indian History and an equal
number. Modern Indian History. AT least how many students selected all the four
subjects.
(a) 75 (b) 45 (c) 30 (d) Insufficient data
Directions for Question 50 to 51: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below. Age Consultants have three consultants Gyani, Medha and Budhi. The sum of the number
of projects handled by Gyani, Medha and Budhi individually is equal to the number of projects in
which Medha is involved. All three consultants are involved together in 6 projects. Gyani works
with Medha in 14 projects. Budhi has 2 projects with Medha but without Gyani, and 3 projects
with Gyani but without Medha. The total number of projects for New Age Consultants is one less
than twice the number of projects in which more than one consultant is involved.
50. What is the number of projects in which Medha alone is involved?
(a) Uniquely equal to zero. (b) Uniquely equal to 1.
(c) Uniquely equal to 4. (d) Can’t be determined uniquely.
51. What is the number of projects in which Gyani alone is involved?
(a) Uniquely equal to zero. (b) Uniquely equal to 1.
(c) Uniquely equal to 4. (d) Can’t be determined uniquely.
Directions for Questions 52 to 56: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follows.
All the roads of city Z are either perpendicular or parallel to one another. The roads are all
straight. Road, A, B, C, D and E are parallel to one another. Roads G, H, I, H, J, K, L and M are
parallel to one another.
i. Road A is 1 mile east of road B
ii. Road B is 1/2 mile west of C.
iii. Road D is 1 mile west of E.
iv. Road G is 1/2 mile south of H.
v. Road I is 1 mile north of J
vi. Road K is 1/2 mile north of L.
vii. Road K is 1 mile south of M
52. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
(a) I is 1 mile north of L (b) D is 2 miles west of B
(c) E and B intersect (d) M is 1.5 miles north of L
53. If E is midway between B and C, then which of the following statement is false?
(a) D is less than 1 mile from B.
(b) C is less than 1.5 miles from D.
(c) Distance from E to B added to distance of E to C is 1/2 mile.
(d) D is 2 miles west of A
54. Which of the following possibilities would make two roads coincide?
(a) L is 1/2 mile north of I
(b) D is 1/2 mile east of A
(c) I is 1/2 mile north of K
(d) C is 1 mile west of D
55. If X is parallel to I & X is 1/2 mile south of J & I north of G, then which road would be ½
mile apart?
(a) I and X b (c) X and H
(c) J and G d (d) J and H
56. If road E is midway between B and C, then the distance between A and D is
(a) 1/2 mile (b) 1 mile
(c) 1.75 miles (d) 2.5 miles
Directions for Question 57 to 59: Refer to the data and answer the questions the follow :
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a group. Out of these 3 are males and 3 are
females.
(ii) There are 2 electricians, 2 lumbermen, one television star and one draper in the
group
(iii) B, E, C and A are two married couples, each one having a different profession.
(iv) E, A television star, wear a black gown, is married to a lumberman in a brown
suit.
2 people wear black clothes, 2 wear brown clothes and the remaining people
wear blue and gray each.
(v) Both husbands and both wives wear the same coloured clothes respectively.
(vii) A is a male electrician and D is his twin sister who is also an electrician.
(viii) B is a draper
57. Which of the following are the two married ladies?
(a) E and C (b) B and C (c) B and E (d) C and D
58. Who are the married couples?
(a) AE, BC (b) AB, EC (c) AC, BE (d) None of these
59. What colour dress does the unmarried lady wear?
(a) Black (b) Grey (c) Blue (d) Grey or Blue
Directions for Questions 60 to 63: Answer the questions after reading through the passage.
Six plays, P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be held during the week i.e, from Sunday to Saturday. In the
day, only one play can be shown, and the showing of the plays is subject to the following
conditions:
i. A two day gap should exist between the showing of plays T and S.
ii. The showing of U should be followed immediately by the showing of R.
iii. P cannot be shown on Thursday.
iv. Q should be shown on Tuesday and should not be followed by S.
v. These won’t be any play on day. Friday or Sunday is not that day and just before
this day, S has to be shown.
60. No play is shown on:
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday (c) Monday (d) Tuesday
61. On which day will the play R be shown?
(a) Friday (b) Saturday (c) Thursday (d) Monday
62. Which play is the last one to be shown?
(a) S (b) R (c) P (d) U
63. How many plays are shown between S and U?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) None of these
Directions for Questions 64 to 66: Refer to the sequence below and answer the questions that
follow:
2 z 5 ? 9 t r 2 × m + 3 b 7 - S
64. How many even numbers are located in even places from left to right?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) None of these
65. How many letters in the above sequence are immediately preceded as well as
immediately followed by numbers?
(a) One (b) (3) (c) Three (d) None of these
66. The element located third to the right of the thirteen element from the right is:
(a) r (b) t (c) 2 (d) 9
SOLUTION
SECTION 1
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41.(d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50.(b)
SECTION 2
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
SECTION 3
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (c)
SECTION 4
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57.(c) 58.(b) 59.(d) 60.(c)
61.(a) 62.(c) 63.(b) 64.(c) 65.(b) 66. ( a)
SOLUTION
SECTION 4
1. c
2. d
3. c From clues IV & VI we conclude that F – G – H are the recruitment agents that should
be included. Hence only one combination is possible.
4. a
5. b From solutions 68 & 69 we know that F, G and B all can go with C, hence right answer
should be (b).
Directions for 6 to 11: Refer to the following table for the following solutions.
The following table gives the moves that can be made for the mentioned conditions. The
underlined positions indicate your position after nth move.
Move Minimum
Score
Maximum
Score
Reaching 5
O’clock
0th 1 = 1 1 = 1 1
1st 7 – 4 = 3 12 – 2 = 10 12
2nd 1 – 4 = 3 11 – 2 = 9 11 / 6
3rd 2 = 2 - 5
4th - - -
Total 3 20 -
6. d
7. c
8.d By moving a step anticlockwise in the first move, you reach at 12 O’clock. From here you
can reach
a 10’O Clock through 12 – 11 - 10
b 5 ‘O clock through 12 – 6 – 5
c 7 ‘O Clock through 12 – 6 – 7.
But you cannot reach 6 ‘O Clock. Hence (4).
9. b
10. c Your mother’s husband ? your father. Your father’s sister ? your aunt. So, the lady’s
aunt is the man’s aunt ? the man and the lady are brother and sister.
11. c M is the maternal uncle of R means m is the brother of R‘s mother (say K) i.e., M + K – R.
Direction for 12 to 13: Refer to the following information for the following solutions.
We are given that A visited at 8 O’clock. Now from III we conclude that A visited at 8
p.m. Now from I we concluded that B has to visit at 9 a.m. otherwise nobody will be able
to visit in between A & B. Now if D were to visit at 11 p.m. then condition IV will get
violated hence we concluded that D visited at 11 a.m. and C visited at 10 p.m. From here
all the questions are answered.
12. b
13. c
Directions for 14 to 19: Refer to the following information for the following solutions.
The ratio of the values of Dollar: Pound: DM, for July month are calculated as below.
Table of exchange rate fluctuation between DM/Pound during the sex months, can be
calculated as,
Dollar (Do) Pound (Po) DM Month
1.6 1
1 1.5
1.6 1 2.4 July
Similar approach is applied to arrive at following table.
Do Po DM Month
1.64 1 2.4928 Aug.
1.62 1 2.3976 Sep.
1.58 1 2.2752 Oct.
1.54 1 2.0944 Nov.
1.5 1 2.085 Dec.
From this all the questions can be answered.
14. c Directly looking at the table.
15. a Directly looking at the table.
16. d To purchase maximum number of pounds,
Pounds : DM ratio should be maximum or
DM : Pounds ratio should be minimum.
17. b The cost per kg of tea is Rs. 64. Therefore, the cost per tonne of tea is 64 X 1000 =
Rs. 64,000.
100 mn = Rs. 48 X 100 mn = Rs. 4800 mn. Rs. 4800 X 106
No. of tones of tea that needs to be exported =
64000
4800000000
= 75000 tonnes.
18. c From the table it is clear that 10 Pounds = 24.928 DM = Rs. 747.84 ? Rs. 747.80.
19. a Highest percentage change was in Nov. – Dec. and was equal to
1 54
0 04
.
.
X 100 = 2.60%
20.d Because the minority might consist of thousand of people, the opposition might not be
inconsistent with the speaker’s remarks.
21. b
22. b If 20% work in the technical level and within, that means 80% are in the outer two layers.
? 8% of 355 = 284.
From this, subtract the number of people in the peripheral layer (54), to get the answer =
230.
23. a The number must be equal to or more than 36 considering the 3 security personnel rule.
? Choices b and d are invalid.
Out of the 110 people there are already 54 in the peripheral level, thus there cannot be
more than 56 in the security level. This eliminates choice c of 58, leaving one choice a
24. d A drop of 12 people in peripheral is equivalent to 50% of the complete lay-offs, which
then must be 12 x 2 = 24, which is 15% of the original population, which must be:
24/0.5 = 160. Hence, d
25. b The total number of people who do not need security clearance are 54 + 48 = 102.
? Percentage of people who do need security clearance =
360
360 ? 102
= 100% ? 72%.
Hence b
Q. 26 – 28. From condition # 1 and # 2, either
I. Mr. Gupta won one game, Mrs. Gupta won one game, and Mr. Sharma won one
game; or
II. Mr. Gupta won two games and Mrs. Gupta won one game; or
III. Mr. Gupta won two games and Mrs. Sharma won one game.
If I is correct, then : Form (3), Mr. Sharma beat Mrs. Sharma in the first game. Then, only
Mr. Sharma could have lost to Mr. Gupta or Mrs. Gupta in the second game. Then, from
(3), no one could have played against the last winner in the last game. So, I is not correct.
II cannot be correct from (3).
So, III is correct. If Mrs. Sharma won the first game, then she beat Mr. Sharma inthat
game, from (3). But then, from (3), no one could have played against Mr. Gupta in the
second game. So, Mr Gupta won the first game against Mrs. Gupta, from (1). Then, Mr.
Gupta beat Mr. Sharma in the second game. The Mrs. Sharma beat Mr. Gupta in the third
game. So, only Mrs. Sharma did not lose a game.
26. b 27. b 28. a
Qs. 29 – 33
29. d 30. c 31. a 32. b 33. c
Qs. 34 – 36
34. b 35. b 36. d 37. a 38. c 39.b 40. d
41. 42. c 43. b 44. d 45.c 46. a
47-48. The second resident always speaks truth (so, not a govt. official) First speaker may speak
truth (IS not & denies being a govt. official) or may tell a lie (is a govt. official but denies
being one) – in either case denying being a govt. official. If first resident speaks truth the
third one tells a lie and vice-versa.
47. c 48. d
49. (3) History of Modern Europe (HME) + American History (AH) = 90 + 90 = 180, but there
are only 120 students. Thus, at least 60 students selected both of the above subjects. HME
and AM + Ancient Indian History (AIH) = 60 + 105 = 165. Thus, again, as there are only
120 students, at least 45 would have taken all three of above. Using the same logic, (45 +
105) – 120 = 30 students at least would select all the four subjects.
50. b 51. d
52.d By conditions (vi) and (vii) together, (4) is necessarily true. Hence, (d).
53.d If E is midway between B and C, then the distance between B and E is ¼ mile and
between E and C is ¼ mile. Then: (a) is true by condition (iii); (b) is true by conditions
and (ii) and (iii); (c) is true by condition (ii); (d) is false, as the distance from D to E is 1
mile, E to C is ¼ mile and C to A is ½ mile, which is less than 2 miles. Hence (d).
54.c By conditions (vi) and (vii), option (b) will make two roads coincide
55.b Diagrammatically, representing data in question and conditions (iv) and (v), J and H will
be ½ mile apart. Hence (b).
I
1 mile
J
0.5 mile
X
H 1 mile
G 0.5 mile
56.c As explained in !. 117,
For answers to questions 57 to 59: The given information can be tabulated as follows:
Males Females
Name Profession Dress colour Name Profession Dress colour
A Electrician Brown Married to B Draper Black
C Lumberman Brown Married to E Television
star
Black
F Lumberman Grey/blue - D Electrician Blue/gray
Now, all the questions can be answered.
57.c The married ladies are B and E.
58.b The married couples are AB and CE.
59.d The unmarried lady i.e., D wears a gray/blue coloured dress
For Questions 60
Sun Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat
S No Play Q T U R P
Now, we can answer all the questions.
60.c No play is shown on Monday. Hence, (3)
61.a Play R is shown on Friday.
62.c The last play to be shown is P
63.b Two plays are shown between S and U
64.c ‘2’ is located on the 8th position.
65.b ‘a’ and ‘b’ are the 2 letters that are immediately preceded as well as followed by
numbers
66.c The 13th element from the right is ‘9’. Third to the right or ‘9’ is (2).